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Basic Biomedical Sciences Question Paper
Basic Biomedical Sciences
Course:Bachelor Of Medicine And Bachelor Of Surgery
Institution: Moi University question papers
Exam Year:2007
MOI UNIVERSITY
SCHOOL OF MEDICINE
END OF TERM I EXAMINATION (ETE I) 2006/2007
COURSE CODE: MSB 100
COURSE TITLE: BASICS OF BIOMEDICAL SCIENCES
PROGRAMME: MBChB/NUR, YEAR OF STUDY: 1(ONE)
DATE: 16TH APRIL 2007 TIME: 9.00 A.M. - 12.00 NOON
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
i) Write your University Registration Number on every piece of paper you use.
ii) Do not write your names on any piece of paper you use.
iii) This paper consists of six (6) sections, headed: Section A -Immunology, Section B - Toxicology, Section C - Biochemistry D - Pharmacology, Section E - Microbiology & Parasitology, Section F - Radiology & Imaging. All to be answered in a total time of three (3) hours.
iv) Each section constitutes a CAT relating to the discipline named.
v) Answer all the questions in all the six (6) sections.
vi) Questions in each section must be answered in separate answer booklets or answer sheets so that they can be handed in separately at the end of the examination.
vii) Read carefully the additional instructions preceeding each section.
SECTION A: IMMUNOLOGY (30 Minutes)
INSTRUCTIONS:-
(i) THIS PAPER CONSISTS OF TWENTY (20) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQs) TO BE ANSWERED IN TWENTY (20) MINUTES AND ONE (1) SHORT ANSWER QUESTION (SAQ) TO BE ANSWERED IN TEN (10) MINUTES.
(ii) EACH MCQ CONSISTS OF A STATEMENT/STEM WHOSE MOST CORRECT RESPONSE IS PROVIDED AMONG THE FIVE OPTIONS NUMBERED A TO E.
(iii) FOR EACH MCQ, SELECT ONLY ONE MOST APPROPRIATE OPTION AND INDICATE BY CIRCLING IT.
EXAMPLE:
Major features of innate immunity include
(a) recognition
(b) specificity
(c) memory
d first line of defense
(e) adaptability
the appropriate response is d
(iv) A CORRECT RESPONSE IN THE MCQs EARNS YOU PLUS ONE (+1) MARK. AN INCORRECT RESPONSE EARNS YOU MINUS HALF (-½)A MARK. NO PENALTY FOR UNATTEMPTED MCQ.
(v) ATTEMPT ALL QUESTIONS.
SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQs) (20 minutes)
1. Clinical immunology involves the understanding of the following EXCEPT
(a) Hypersensitivity reactions
(b) Autoimmune diseases
(c) Immunodeficiency disorders
(d) Normal body immune system
(e) Tumours
2. Elie Metchnikott is credited for
(a) Anaphylaxis
(b) Serum antitoxins
(c) Role of phagocytosis
(d) Chemical structure of antibodies
(e) Major histocompatibility complex
3. Susuma Tonegawa pioneered immunological research in
(a) Monoclonal antibody
(b) Gene rearrangement in antibody production
(c) Immune regulatory theories
(d) Transplantation immunity
(e) Development of radio immunoassay
4. The following cluster of differentiation (CD) antigens define the cell subpopulation indicated
(a) CD29 for all B cells
(b) CD23 for normal B cells (
(c) CD8 for helper/inducer T cells
(d) CD2 for thymocytes
(e) CD8 for cytotoxic T cells
5. The basic principle of adaptive immunity is derived from
(a) Louis Pasteur theory
(b) Burnet’s clonal selection theory
(c) Edward Jenner’s postulation
(d) Milstain and Kohler technique
(e) Robert Koch theory
6. The following are characteristic feature of innate immunity
(a) Memory of prior exposure exists
(b) Inborn pattern recognition receptors (PRR) recognize pathogens
(c) Randomly generated receptors recognize pathogens
(d) Response is generally slow
(e) Pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) display narrow specificity
7. A substance that includes a detectable immune response and reacts against it is called
(a) Hapten
(b) Immunogen
(c) Alloantigen
(d) Antigen
(e) Superantigen
8. Immunoglobulin class switching from IgM to IgG is mediated by
(a) IL-3
(b) IL-4
(c) IL-6
(d) IL7
(e) IL8
9. Principles of adaptive immunity EXCLUDES
(a) Humoral responses eliminate extracellular pathogens
(b) Cell mediated immunity comprises T lymphocytes, macrophages and NK cells
(c) Recognition, narrow specificity and memory are hallmarks
(d) Both B and T lymphocytes possess antigen specific receptors
(e) T cells do not recognize antigens in association with MHC antigens
10. Mechanical control of upper respiratory tract (URT) is mediated by
(a) Lysozyme
(b) Mucociliary elevation
(c) Alveolar lymphocytes
(d) Alveolar macrophages
(e) Lactoferrin
11. Primary lymphoid organs include
(a) Peyer’s patches
(b) Lymph nodes
(c) Tonsils
(d) Thymus
(e) Spleen
12. Macrophage associated functions EXCLUDE
(a) Phagocytosis
(b) Antigen processing and presentation
(c) Fibrosis and secretory activity
(d) Respiratory oxidative burst activity
(e) Induction of fever
13. Accessory antigen presenting cells (APCs) EXCLUDE
(a) Basophils
(b) Dendritic cells
(c) Monocyte –macrophage type of cells
(d) B cells
(e) Langerhans cells
14. Neutrophils
(a) Do not constitute 90% of PMNL
(b) Are the first PMNLs recruited at site of infection
(c) Secondary granules contain lysozymes and acid hydrolases
(d) Subpopulation posses identical granule distribution
(e) Are not potent phagocytes
15. Cytokines include the following EXCEPT
(a) Interferons
(b) Lymphokines
(c) Monokines
(d) Hormones
(e) Interlenkins
16. The following are NOT characteristic features of natural killer (NK) cells
(a) Provide defence against intracellular pathogens
(b) Express CD 16, CD 56 and CD 94 cell makers
(c) Are large granular lymphocytes
(d) Killing mechanism of pathogen is MHC-dependent
(e) Kill viral and tumour cells by apoptosis
17. Cell-mediated immunity is mediated by
(a) B and T cells
(b) Complement proteins
(c) T cells, macrophages and cytokines
(d) Antibodies and cytokines
(e) Phagocytic cells
18. The mechanism that accounts for most of the intrathymic death of potential immunocompetent T cells is
(a) Apoptosis
(b) Necrosis
(c) Phagocytosis
(d) Pinocytosis
(e) Outer-restriction
19. Neutrophil-derived microbicidal factors include
(a) Reactive oxygen intermediates
(b) Lysozomes and hydrolases
(c) Major basic protein
(d) Lymphotoxis
(e) Arginase
20. The following are NOT examples of antigens
(a) Cebrospinal fluid (CSF)
(b) Parasite surface coat
(c) Live attenuate virus
(d) Inactivated microorganisms
(e) Transmembrane proteins
SUBSECTION AII: SHORT ANSWER QUESTION (SAQ) (10 minutes)
INSTRUCTIONS:
1) THERE IS ONE (1) QUESTION IN THIS SUBSECTION
II) ANSWER THE QUESTION
SAQ 1. Describe five (5) importance of Immunology in medicine
- Development of vaccines
- Tissue transplantation
- Understanding and Treatment of autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis
- Forensic medicine
- Paternity identification
- Others; anthropological studies.
(10 minutes)
SECTION B: TOXICOLOGY (30 Minutes)
TYPE III
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQs)
INSTRUCTIONS:-
(I) EACH OF THE QUESTIONS IN THIS SUBSECTION CONSISTS OF A STATEMENT/QUESTION WHOSE MOST APPROPRIATE COMPLETION/ANSWER IS PROVIDED AMONG THE FIVE OPTIONS NUMBERED (a) - (e).
(II) FOR EACH QUESTION SELECT THE MOST APPROPRIATE OPTION AND INDICATE BY PRINTING AN X IN THE APPROPRIATE BOX IN THE ANSWER SHEETS PROVIDED. IF YOU DO NOT KNOW THE ANSWER, PRINT X IN THE BOX IN THE `D'' COLUMN
(III) A CORRECT RESPONSE EARNS YOU PLUS ONE (1) MARK. AN INCORRECT RESPONSE EARNS YOU MINUS HALF (½) MARK.
1. What is your understanding of toxic dose of 40 (TD40)?
(a) A chronically administered dose that can kill all animals exposed within a period of 40 minutes
(b) A chronically administered dose of 40 grams that can cause toxicity in 40% of all animals exposed
(c) Acutely administered dose that can cause fatality of 40% of all the animals exposed
(d) Acutely administered dose of a given drug that can kill all animals exposed within a period of 40 minutes
(e) The time within which a toxic dose is likely to rise in blood of animals exposed to a dangerous level
2. Which one of the following is considered a crucial characteristic which makes the lungs the most dangerous route of exposure to xenobiotics?
(a) It is not an obligatory route of exposure
(b) Presence of a network of lymphatic vessels
(c) Presence of a thick layer of tissue between alveoli and blood vessels
(d) It has a very large surface area
(e) Cardiac output to the lungs is reasonably low
3. Which one of the following routes of poison elimination is responsible for only a small fraction of poisons being eliminated from the body?
(a) Saliva
(b) Sweat
(c) Lungs
(d) Gastrointestinal tract
(e) Urine
4. Detoxification process in the body is often described as
(a) Elimination
(b) Biotransformation
(c) Toxification
(d) Sequestration
(e) Dissolution
5. Which organ in the body would you expect to interact with the environmental poison first following an oral exposure?
(a) Liver
(b) Kidneys
(c) Heart
(d) Spleen
(e) Skin
6. Besides the liver, where else would you expect to find cytochrome P450 Detoxification enzymes?
(a) Soil bacteria
(b) Soil air
(c) Water
(d) Plants
(e) Soil particles
7. Which one of the following enzymes is considered as an endogenous antidote to some xenobiotics finding their ways in the body?
(a) Expoxidases
(b) Esterases
(c) Transferases
(d) Dehydrogenases
(e) Hydrolases
Use this case to answer Qs 8 & 9: A case was given where pharmacokinetic parameters where recorded shortly before hospital admission as half t=30, ke=0.25, vd=16, GFR=0.9 and classified as normal for poison X. Measurements taken 5 hours later post admission to hospital were given as half t=40, ke=20, vd=40, GFR=0.2
8. Which one of the following parameters would you classify as toxocokentic?
(a) Half t=30
(b) Vd=40
(c) Ke=0.25
(d) Vd=16
(e) GFR=0.9
9. Which one of the following parameters would you classify as pharmacokinetic?
(a) Half t=40
(b) Ke=0.20
(c) Vd=40
(d) GFR=0.9
(e) Ke=20
10. Which one of the following may be technically classified as a poison?
(a) Aspirin
(b) Organophosphate
(c) Oranges
(d) Maize
(e) All the above
11. Which one of the following is mainly responsible for the eutriphication of rivers?
(a) Disposal of industrial detergents
(b) Disposal of kitchen wastes
(c) Poor use of pesticides
(d) Too many industries by the river side
(e) Presence of industrial heavy metal residues in water
12. Poisons undergo metabolic processes in the human body. Which is the equivalent of metabolism in the soil?
(a) Biodegradation
(b) Biomagnification
(c) Bioaccumulation
(d) Biovapourization
(e) Biosolubulisation
13. Apparent volume of distribution of poison K has been given as 15 litres. In which tissue would you expect to find the highest % concentration of the unmetabolised poison following a near fatal exposure?
(a) Whole blood
(b) Saliva
(c) Skeletal muscles
(d) Nails
(e) Urine
14. Using the information provided in question 13, where would you expect to find the highest % of components of K detoxification 24 hours post exposure?
(a) Urine
(b) Blood plasma
(c) Kidney
(d) Brain
(e) Stomach
15. What is the terminology that best describes the intrinsic capacity of a substance to cause harm?
(a) Hazard
(b) Risk
(c) Toxicity
(d) Poisoning
(e) Toxification
SECTION C: BIOCHEMISTRY
(30 Minutes)
SECTION C I: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQs) (20 Minutes)
TYPE III
INSTRUCTIONS:-
(I) EACH OF THE QUESTIONS IN THIS SUBSECTION CONSISTS OF A STATEMENT/QUESTION WHOSE MOST APPROPRIATE COMPLETION/ANSWER IS PROVIDED AMONG THE FIVE OPTIONS NUMBERED (a) - (e).
(II) FOR EACH QUESTION SELECT THE MOST APPROPRIATE OPTION AND INDICATE BY PRINTING AN X IN THE APPROPRIATE BOX IN THE ANSWER SHEETS PROVIDED.
(III) A CORRECT RESPONSE EARNS YOU ONE MARK.
1. Which of the following does not occur in mammals?
(a) ?-D-Glucose
(b) ?-D-Glucose
(c) ?-D-Galactose
(d) ?-L-Galactose
(e) ?-D-Fructose
2. Hydrolysis of lactose gives
(a) Glucose + fructose
(b) Two glucose molecules
(c) Glucose + galactose
(d) Galactose + fructose
(e) Glucose + ribose
3. Ice melts to water when
(a) The container of ice is warmed
(b) The temperature is equal to OoC
(c) Greater attractive forces appear
(d) Molecules become less randomly oriented
(e) Molecules become more randomly oriented
4. The boiling point of any liquid is
(a) 100oC
(b) The temperature at which vapor pressure is equal to osmotic pressure
(c) The temperature at which many molecules leave the liquid as return to it
(d) The temperature at which no molecules can return to the bulk of the liquid
(e) The temperature at which vapor pressure is equal to external pressure
5. An amino acid that is incompatible with ?-helix is
(a) Tyrosine
(b) Glycine
(c) Histidine
(d) Proline
(e) Phenylalanine
6. An amino acid that contains a disulfide bond is
(a) Cysteic acid
(b) Methionine
(c) Homocysteine
(d) Cystine
(e) Lysine
7. Which of the following amino acids has two asymmetric carbon atoms?
(a) Valine
(b) Serine
(c) Threonine
(d) Methionine
(e) Glycine
8. HCOOH can change electrophoretic properties of peptides containing
(a) Lysine*
(b) Threonine
(c) Tyrosine
(d) Cysteine
(e) Hydroxylysine
9. In electrophoresis, if pH is above isoelectric point, a protein will
(a) Migrate to anode
(b) Migrate to cathode
(c) Cease to migrate to the poles
(d) Form a switterion
(e) Precipitate
10. The secondary structure of a protein is stabilized by
(a) Ionic bonds
(b) Peptide bonds
(c) Hydrogen bonds
(d) Disulfide bonds
(e) Hydrophobic bonds
11. Which of the following fatty acids is essentially insoluble in water?
(a) Caproic
(b) Butyric
(c) Caprylic
(d) Ricinoleic
(e) Lignoceric
12. A fatty acid with the highest melting point is
(a) Cerebronic
(b) Lignoceric
(c) Arachidonic
(d) Linolenic
(e) Stearic
13. Which of the following fatty acids can form a less stable cis isomer?
(a) Linoleic
(b) Palmitic
(c) Stearic
(d) Elaidic
(e) Caprylic
14. Sphingomyelin is present in all of the following except
(a) Plasma membrane
(b) Nerve myelin membrane
(c) Ganglion cells
(d) Bile acids
(e) Spinal cord
15. Which of the following lipids is a precursor of lactose?
(a) Lysolecithin
(b) Cephalin
(c) Sphingomyelin**
(d) Kerasin
(e) Phosphatidyl choline
16. Apoenzyme is best defined as a
(a) Catalytically inactive enzyme**
(b) Catalytically active enzyme
(c) Nonprotein part of the enzyme
(d) Posthetic portion of the enzyme
(e) Part of organic portion of the enzyme
17. Which of the following metal ions does not function as a cofactor of an enzyme?
(a) Mn++
(b) Fe++
(c) Zn++
(d) Ca++***
(e) Cu++
18. The catalytically active unit of an enzyme is called
(a) Proenzyme
(b) Activator
(c) Coenzyme
(d) Apoenzyme
(e) Holoenzyme**
19. In the absence of allosteric inhibitor, allosteric enzymes would exhibit
(a) Reversible inactivation
(b) Sigmoidal velocity curves
(c) Hyperbolic saturation kinetics
(d) Competitive type kinetics
(e) Non competitive type kinetics
20. In concerted model for allosteric interaction, substances that bind preferentially to high affinity state are called
(a) Allosteric inducers
(b) Allosteric inhibitors
(c) Allosteric activators
(d) Co-repressors
(e) Proenzymes
SECTION C II: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (SAQs) (10 minutes)
INSTRUCTIONS:
I) THERE IS ONE (1) QUESTION IN THIS SECTION
II) ANSWER THE QUESTION
III) START THE QUESTION ON A SEPARATE PIECE OF PAPER OF THE BOOKLET
SAQ 1. Describe the differences between starch and cellulose and explain why cellulose is not digestible in humans.
(10 minutes)
SECTION D : PHARMACOLOGY (30 Minutes)
SUB-SECTION D I: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQs) (30 minutes)
TYPE III
INSTRUCTIONS:
(i) EACH OF THE QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION CONSISTS OF A STATEMENT WHOSE MOST APPROPRIATE ANSWER IS PROVIDED AMONG THE FIVE OPTIONS NUMBERED (a) - (e).
(ii) FOR EACH QUESTION SELECT THE MOST APPROPRIATE OPTION AND INDICATE BY PRINTING AN X IN THE APPROPRIATE BOX IN THE ANSWER SHEETS PROVIDED. IF YOU DO NOT KNOW THE ANSWER, PRINT X IN THE BOX IN THE `D'' COLUMN
(iii) A CORRECT RESPONSE EARNS YOU PLUS ONE MARK.
1. Pharmacology can be defined as
(a) The interaction of endogenous molecules with living systems
(b) The science that deals solely with the undesirable effects of chemicals on living systems
(c) The art and science of compounding and dispensing drugs
(d) The large scale manufacture of drugs
(e) None of the above
2. In prescribing a drug it’s BEST to use
(a) The chemical name
(b) The non-proprietary name
(c) The brand name
(d) The proprietary name
(e) None of the above
3. Which of the following is NOT a factor governing choice of route in drug administration?
(a) Physical and chemical properties of the drug
(b) First pass metabolism
(c) Accuracy of dosage required
(d) Patient-condition
(e) Ability of the drug to cross the blood brain barrier
4. One advantage of administering a drug by the rectal route is that
(a) The first pass effect may be reduced
(b) It’s more convenient and non invasive
(c) Patience compliance is better
(d) Drugs with poor oral bioavailability may be administered this way
(e) Absorption of the drug is faster than when administered orally
5. Depot preparation of a drug
(a) Is suitable for intradermal administration
(b) Is usually injected subcutaneously
(c) Is suitable for poorly compliant patients
(d) Is usually infused slowly
(e) Is the route of choice in emergencies
6. The first pass effect is avoided when drugs are administered by the following routes except
(a) Intravenous
(b) Cutaneous
(c) Inhalational
(d) Rectal
(e) Buccal
7. Which of the following is NOT a component of the pharmacokinetic process?
(a) Drug absorption
(b) Systemic availability
(c) Systemic effects
(d) Drug distribution
(e) Protein binding
8. A suppository is best administered
(a) Rectally
(b) Vaginally
(c) Orally
(d) Sublingually
(e) Subcutaneously
9. Which of the following BEST defines active transport of a drug?
(a) Movement occurs down a concentration gradient
(b) Is non-specific
(c) May need a carrier
(d) May be inhibited by other chemicals
(e) Does not require energy
10. Factors affecting drug absorption include the following EXCEPT
(a) Aqueous solubility
(b) Area of absorbing surface
(c) Vascularity of the absorbing surface
(d) Route of administration
(e) First pass effect
11. Apparent volume of distribution (Vd) of a drug
(a) Is high for drugs that do not enter cells
(b) Tissue binding may reduce it
(c) Is affected by lipid solubility
(d) Approximates to the total body water for most drugs
(e) Has an inverse relationship with the extent of distribution
12. In plasma protein binding
(a) Acidic drugs generally bind to ?1 acid glycoprotein
(b) Highly plasma protein bound drugs tend to have a high Vd
(c) The bound fraction may exert pharmacological effects in plasma
(d) Albumin may be involved
(e) The bound fraction is available for metabolism
13. The following are prodrugs EXCEPT
(a) Levodopa
(b) Enalapril
(c) Prednisone
(d) Sulfasalazine
(e) Ampicillin
14. The following are phase II reactions of drug metabolism EXCEPT
(a) Acetylation
(b) Sulfation
(c) Glucuronidation
(d) Methylation
(e) Deamination
15. The primary site for drug metabolism
(a) Kidney
(b) Intestine
(c) Lungs
(d) Plasma
(e) None of the above
16. Addition of oxygen or negatively charged radical and removal of hydrogen or positively charged radical is known as
(a) Reduction
(b) Oxidation
(c) Acetylation
(d) Hydrolysis
(e) None of the above
17. Conjugation of drugs
(a) Occurs primarily in the liver
(b) Increases their water solubility
(c) Is brought about by microsomal enzymes
(d) Can occur with glucoronic acid
(e) All the above
18. This cytochrome P-450 isoenzyme is responsible for 50% of drug metabolism in the liver
(a) CYP 2E1
(b) CYP 2D6
(c) CYP 3A 4/5
(d) CYP 1A 1/2
(e) CYP 2C 19
19. The following are consequences of microsomal enzyme induction EXCEPT
(a) Decreased intensity of some drugs
(b) Increased intensity of some drugs
(c) Tolerance
(d) Precipitation of acute intermittent porphyria
(e) Increased duration of action of some drugs
20. Characteristically following oral administration, many drugs
(a) Are absorbed readily when in the unionized rather than in the ionized form
(b) Are absorbed primarily in the instestine
(c) Cross membranes mainly by simple diffusion
(d) With high lipid solubility readily penetrate into the CNS
(e) All the above
21. The movement of drug molecules across the cell membranes is by
(a) Diffusing through the lipid
(b) Diffusing through aqueous pores that traverse the lipid
(c) Combination with a carrier molecule which acts as a catalyst
(d) Pinocytosis
(e) All the above
22. Route of administration suitable for emergency, and permits titration of the dosage as well is
(a) Oral
(b) Intravenous
(c) Intramuscular
(d) Subcutaneous
(e) All the above
23. Which route of drug administration is suitable for a few insoluble suspensions and implantation of solid pellets?
(a) Oral
(b) Intravenous
(c) Intramuscular
(d) Subcutaneous
(e) All the above
24. The following drugs undergo active tubular secretion by the organic acid transport mechanism EXCEPT
(a) Penicillins
(b) Probenecid
(c) Sulfinpyrazone
(d) Nitrofurantoin
(e) Quinine
25. The following drugs cause enzyme inhibition in man EXCEPT
(a) Allopurinol
(b) Omeprazole
(c) Erythromycin
(d) Isoniacid
(e) Phenobarbitone
26. A drug is being metabolized by zero-order kinetics. This indicates that
(a) A constant amount of drug is being catabolized each hour
(b) A constant fraction of drug is being catabolized each hour
(c) The rate of catabolism is proportional to drug concentration
(d) A drug is a water-soluble substance
(e) The time required to catabolize half of the drug is independent of the initial concentration of the drug
27. Drugs interact with their receptors by forming
(a) Ionic bonds
(b) Hydrogen bonds
(c) Van der waals forces
(d) Covalent bonds
(e) All the above
28. When a drug has a low therapeutic index, that drug should be
(a) Used mostly orally
(b) Used mostly intravenously
(c) Considered a potentially toxic substance
(d) Never be administered intravenously
(e) Given only in submilligram doses
29. Pharmacodynamics include
(a) The biological effects produced by chemicals
(b) The sites/mechanisms by which the biological effects are produced
(c) The factors that affect the safety and effectiveness of the drug
(d) All the above
(e) None of the above
30. In Phase II of a clinical Trial
(a) Dose response relationship is studied in human volunteers
(b) Acute toxicity studies are done in animals
(c) Involves subacute and chronic toxicity studies in animals
(d) Multicentre studies are done in many patients
(e) None of the above
SECTION E: MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY (30 minutes)
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (SAQs)
INSTRUCTIONS:-
I) THERE ARE FOUR (4) QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION
II) ANSWER ALL THE FOUR (4) QUESTIONS
III) START EACH QUESTION ON A FRESH PIECE OF PAPER OF THE BOOKLET.
SAQ 1. Classify protozoa
SAQ 2. Classify fungi of medical importance
SAQ 3. Classify bacteria of medical importance
SAQ 4. Name (Genus species) for the following
(1) Sand flies
(2) Tsetse flies
(3) Biting midges
(4) Schistosoma manson snail
(5) Kissing bug
SECTION F - RADIOLOGY AND IMAGING
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (SAQs) (30 Minutes)
INSTRUCTIONS:
I) THERE ARE THREE (3) QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION
II) ANSWER ALL THE THREE (3) QUESTIONS
III) START EACH QUESTION ON A FRESH PIECE OF PAPER OF THE BOOKLET.
SAQ 1. Describe Radioactivity.
List five (5) radio-isotopes and their medical uses.
(10 minutes)
SAQ 2. Describe electromagnetic waves.
List five (5) types and their medical uses.
(10 minutes)
SAQ 3. Describe the production and medical uses of ultrasound.
(10 minutes)
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