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Pathology Ii Question Paper

Pathology Ii

Course:Bachelor Of Science In Nursing And Public Health

Institution: Kenyatta University question papers

Exam Year:2009

KENYATTA UNIVERSITY
UNIVERSITY EXAMINATIONS 2008/2009
SECOND SEMESTER EXAMINATION FOR THE DEGREE OF BACHELOR
OF SCIENCE IN NURSING AND PUBLIC HEALTH
HNS 207:
PATHOLOGY II
===============================================================
DATE: THURSDAY 20TH AUGUST 2009
TIME: 8.00 A.M. – 10.00 A.M.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
• This paper consists of three sections , A, B, and C.
• Answer all the Questions.
• There are additional specific instructions for each section after the section
heading.

SECTION A: Multiple Choice Questions (20 marks)
Instructions for Section A:
1. Encircle the letter before the correct response from the four choices given in each
question.
2. All questions carry equal marks
3. Half a mark ( ½ mark) will be deducted for every incorrect response.
Therefore, DO NOT guess.
4. In case you make ay corrections, do so clearly by crossing through the circle you
had drawn under instruction 1 above.

Page 1 of 8

1. Which ONE of the following globin chain combinations represents an embryonic
haemoglobin?
A.
a d
2 2
B.
a2 ?2
C.
a e
2 2
D.
a ß
2
2

2. Which ONE of the following diseases would be associated with the highest
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)?
a)
Polycythemia vera
b)
Sickle cell anaemia
c)
Multiple myeloma
d)
Miliary tuberculosis

3. Which ONE of the following adult haemotological values is pathological?
a)
Haemoglobin; 13.5 (g /dl)
b)
Neutrophil count;
10 x 109 /l
c)
Platelet count; 300 x 109 /l
d)
Lymphocyte differential count; 50%

4. Which ONE of the following is a correctly matched pair of haematological test
and its recommended anticoagulant ?
a)
Heparin; ESR
b)
Citrate, Prothrombin time
c)
Flouride; Peripheral blood film
d)
Heparin; coagulation screen

Page 2 of 8

5. The following features would be suggestive of a haemolytic anaemia EXCEPT;
a)
Jaundice
b)
Haemoglobinuria
c)
Oval macrocytes
d)
Schizocytes

6. In regard to the peripheral blood film;
a)
T and B lympocytes can be readily differentiated.
b)
The degree and type of anaemia can be estimated.
c)
The white blood cell count can be estimated.
d)
Platelets are rarely present.

7. Identify the correctly matched pair of a parasite and its mode of causation of
anaemia.
a)
hookworm; haemolysis
b)
Plasmodium flaciparum; vitamin B12 deficiency
c)
Schistosoma haematobium; chronic blood loss
d)
Leishmania tropica; hypersplenism

8. Which ONE of the following red blood cell indices would be associated with a -
thalassemia major
a)
mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 95fl
b)
Mean corpuscular haemoglobin (MCH) of 20pg
c)
Mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) of 34g/dl
d)
Red Cell distribution width (RDW)of 10%.

9. By which ONE of the following laboratory tests is the diagnosis of myelofibrosis
made?
Page 3 of 8

a)
Bone marrow aspirate cytology
b)
Peripheral blood film
c)
Trephine marrow histology
d)
Immunophenotyping

10. Which ONE of the following layers of a centrifuge blood column is most
increased in acute leukemia?
a)
Plasma
b)
Haematocrit
c)
Buffy coat
d)
Serum

11. Important laboratory tests in the diagnosis and clinical management of multiple
myeloma include the following EXCEPT;
a)
Immunoglobulin quantitation
b)
Immunoelectrofixation
c)
Serum calcium levels
d)
Haemoglobin electrophoresis

12. In which ONE of the following pairs of hemoglobin does the mutation involve
substitution of glutamic acid with valine?
a)
Hb S and Hb E
b)
Hb S and Hb C
c)
Hb S and Hb C
d)
Hb D and Hb S

13. The most ideal site for obtaining a bone marrow aspirate in a neonate is the;
a)
Manubrium sternum

Pathology Ii Question Paper

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