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Human Genetics Question Paper
Human Genetics
Course:Bachelor Of Medicine
Institution: Kenyatta University question papers
Exam Year:2009
KENYATTA UNIVERSITY
UNIVERSITY EXAMINATIONS 2008/2009
SECOND SEMESTER EXAMINATION FOR THE DEGREE OF BACHELOR
OF MEDICINE
HMG 200:
HUMAN GENETICS
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DATE: Wednesday, 9th September, 2009
TIME: 9.00 a.m. – 11.00 a.m.
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INSTRUCTIONS:
Answer ALL questions
SECTION A: Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 1 mark.
1. Which of the following is true about congenital defects?
a) They include abnormalities at the morphology level only
b) They include abnormalities at the biochemical level only
c) They include abnormalities at the morphology and biochemical level before birth
d) They include abnormalities at the morphology and biochemical level before and after
birth
2. Which of the following is false about genetic code?
a) It consist of 64 triplets or codons
b) Each codon codes for amino acid
c) Amino acid are coded by more than one codon
d) 3’ to 5’ strand are the anti-sense codes.
3. Which of the following statements is true?
a) All the 64 triplets codes for amino acid
b) There are only 20 amino acids despite presence of many triplets
c) Genetic code is not universal
d) Both plants and animals have stop codon
4. What does q represents in the chromosomal nomenclature?
a) Short arm b) Long arm c) Affected arm d) Unaffected arm
5. What does 45, X-X chromosomal nomenclature represents?
a) Turner’s syndrome
b) Klinefelters syndrome
c) Edward’s syndrome
d) Down syndrome
6. Which of the following is true about trans- regulators?
a) Controls transcription
b) Controls translation
c) Controls cell mitosis
d) Controls meiosis
7. Which of the following is not true about methylation?
a) It regulates the rate of transcription
b) It determines initiation of transcription
c) It is a trans-regulator
d) It occurs in the nuclear.
8. Which of the following is FALSE about RNA longevity?
a) MRNA gets degraded in the cytoplasm
b) Life span of MRNA is determined by 3’ UTR
c) It determines the expression of the gene
d) MRNA gets degraded in the nuclear.
9. Which of the following is false in the application of recombinant DNA
technology?
a) It involves use of vectors such as plasmids
b) Its major challenge is the purification of protein molecules
c) The insulin produced by the technology has a different molecular structure as the
normal insulin.
d) It involves use of bacteria
10. If a male carrier with the recessive autosomal genetic disorder gets married to a
female with the same genetic disorder, what is the chance of giving birth to
affected male?
a) 50% b) 25% c) 100% d) None of the above.
11. The frequency of allele is 6% in a population. What is the frequency of other
allele if the population is in Hard Weinberg Equilibrium?
a) 6% b) 36% c) 16% d) 0.94
12. Which of the following is not associated with the risk of chromosomal
abnormalities?
a) Paternal age
b) Maternal age
c) Exposure to radiations
d) Drugs
13. What is the significance of predictive genetic testing?
a) Helps to adult onset conditions
b) Helps to know the course of disease and treatment
c) Help to know if there is a gene alteration associated with the disease.
d) Helps to identify carrier of a recessive gene.
14. Which of the following is not key ethical principals and approaches to making
difficult choices?
a) Parental autonomy in abortion choices
b) Directive counseling must be upheld
c) Medical doctor need to decide on a disorder that needs pre-natal diagnosis
d) Prenatal diagnosis must be provided to prepare parents for the birth of affected child.
15 Which of the following is true in epidemiology of genetics disorders?
a) Case and control tests can be used to identify genes associated with any disorder.
b) Linkage study can not be carried out among family members
c) Tribe constitutes a gene pool
d) Random mating is not important in a population which is in Hardy-Weinberg
Equilibrium.
16. Which one of the following is responsible for the rate of transcription?
a) Enhancers b) Transcription factor c) DNA Polymerase d) RNA polymerase
17. Which of the following samples is suitable for detection of a sickle cell in an
adult?
a) Blood b) Amniotic fluid c) Bone Marrow d) Epithelial cells
18. The union of sperm and egg results into -------------------------------
a) Totipotent cell b) Pluripotent cell c) Multipotent cell d) Embryonic stem cell
19. Which of the following is not characteristic of a stem cell?
a) Have the ability to differentiate into specialized cells
b) Have a definite lifespan
c) Regenerate into infinite number
d) Do not have the ability to relocate and differentiate where needed.
20. Pedigree analysis does not help in the following:
a) Helps in identifying the inheritance pattern of a genetic disorder
b) Helps in identifying a proband in the affected family.
c) Helps making decision as regards to genetic counseling
d) Helps in identifying the genetic disorder
SECTION B:
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
1. Describe 3 main processes of gene expression?
6 marks
2. Explain the difference between the following
a) Morphological and biochemical defects
b) Developmental failure and incomplete growth
c) Anti-sense and sense codon
9 marks
3. Explain classification of congenital defects and provide suitable examples?
10 marks
4. Describe exon shuffling and also provide an example of functional implications?
6 marks
5. Explain 3 challenges facing genetic counseling in Kenya.
9 marks
SECTION C: ESSAY
1. Describe stem cell research and explain how it can be exploited to solve problems of
genetic disorder?
20 marks
2. Carefully read this statement and then answer the below questions: A family
suffers from a genetic disorder, whose severity increases with the generations.
a) Provide name of this genetic condition and give an example of the two genetic
disorders?
6 marks
b) What is the genetic cause of the disorder? 6 marks
c) Explain four issues you may consider while providing genetic counseling to this
family? 8 marks
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