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Pathology Part 1 Question Paper

Pathology Part 1

Course:Bachelor Of Medicine

Institution: Kenyatta University question papers

Exam Year:2009

KENYATTA UNIVERSITY
UNIVERSITY EXAMINATIONS 2008/2009
SECOND SEMESTER EXAMINATION FOR THE DEGREE OF BACHELOR OF MEDICINE & BACHELOR OF SURGERY
(MBChB) 2007 GROUP
HPA 200 PATHOLOGY PART 1
SECTION A
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
PARASITOLOGY/ IMMUNOLOGY
Student Reg. No:__________________________________
DATE: THURSDAY, 10TH SEPTEMBER 2009, TIME: 2.00 P.M. – 3.30 P.M.
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Instructions: Attempt ALL questions. Circle the correct answer. Write your student
identification number on all answer pages. Half a Mark will be subtracted for each wrong
response.

1. The Fc portion of Immunoglobulin
a. is required for placental transmission
b. is important for triggering IgE mediated hypersensitivity
c. confers biological activity on the various immunoglobulin classes
d. contains both heavy and light chains

2. MHC class I molecules
a. are highly polymorphic
b. are only expressed on professional antigen presenting cells
c. associate preferentially with pathogen-derived peptides
d. accommodate peptides in an open-end peptide binding groove
e. associate with ß2-microglobulin

3. Which one of the following is not a component of human tears?
a. IgA
b. IgG
c. Lysozyme
d. Hydrochloric acid

4. Which ONE of following is TRUE of the complement system activation
a. classical pathway is best activated by IgE
b. C2 is the first enzyme complex in the classical pathway
c. both the alternative and classical pathway converge at C3
d. the membrane attack complex is made up of C3a and C5a

5. Which ONE of the following clinical features is NOT usually associated with HIV
infection?
a. Persistent generalized lymphadenopathy
b. A glandular fever-like illness
c. Cardiac failure
d. Decreased CD4 T cell counts

6. Which ONE of the following is TRUE of epitopes associated with antigens from an
exogenous source? They are:
a. presented in association with Class I MHC
b. presented to T helper lymphocytes
c. presented to T cytotoxic lymphocytes
d. associate with MHC molecules within the ER

7. Which ONE of the following cells can give rise to eosinophils:
a. The common lymphoid progenitor.
b. The megakaryocyte
c. The erythroblast.
d. The granulocyte/macrophage progenitor.

8. The majority of cells found in the paracortical area of lymph nodes are:
a. Plasma cells.
b. T cells
c. B cells
d. Macrophages

9. Antigens from sites of infection reach lymph nodes via:
a. Afferent lymphatic vessels.
b. Efferent lymphatic vessels.
c. Lymph node arteries.
d. Lymph node veins.

10. Which ONE of the following cells are known to contain granules:
a. Immature dendritic cells.
b. T cells.
c. B cells.
d. Mast cells.

11. Which ONE of the following cells are NOT myeloid cells:
a. Neutrophils.
b. Granulocytes
c. Basophils.
d. N.K cells

12. Which ONE of the following is NOT an examples of autoimmune disease
a. Type 1 insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Adrenal hyperplasia
d. Systemic lupus erythromatosus

13. The heavy chain variable region of all classes/subclasses of Immunoglobulin are encoded
by:
a. V & C gene segments
b. V & J gene segments
c. V gene segments only
d. V, D, & J gene segments

14. The antigen binding specificity of an antibody is due to:
a. The constant regions of the light chains
b. The variable framework regions of the heavy & light chains
c. The variable regions of the heavy chains
d. The hypervariable regions of both heavy & light chains

15. Which ONE of the following is the primary defect in chronic granulomatous disease?
a. Neutrophil production in the bone marrow
b. Neutrophil chemotaxis
c. Opsonization
d. Cytotoxic T-cell activity

16. Pathology of malaria DOES NOT include
a. Anaemia due to red cell destruction
b. Red blood cell sequestration
c. Fever correlated with synchronous parasite growth
d. Cerebral inflammation due to overproduction of TNF-alpha

17. Central tolerance takes place in
a. Thymus
b. lymph nodes
c. spleen
d. liver

18. Recurrent bacterial pneumonia is UNLIKELY to complicate
a. Prolonged immunosuppression following transplantation
b. Secondary immunodeficiency
c. Complement C3 deficiency
d. Hypogammaglobulinaemia

19. Which ONE of the following cell types is NOT found in a granuloma
a. B lymphocyte
b. Macrophage
c. Epithelioid cell
d. Giant cells

20. With regard to rheumatoid factor, which ONE of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Rheumatoid factor is an acute phase protein
b. A positive rheumatoid factor is diagnostic of rheumatoid arthritis
c. A positive rheumatoid factor suggests a poor prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis
d. Rheumatoid factor is an autoantibody directed against Fab region of IgG

21. Which of the following agents are NOT immunosuppressive
a. Cyclosporine
b. Azathioprine
c. Corticosteroids
d. Salicylic acid

22. Which ONE of the following is a live vaccines
a. Tetanus vaccine
b. Diphtheria vaccine
c. BCG
d. Oral polio vaccine

23. Which ONE of the following survival mechanism is LEAST likely to occur in
parasitic infections?
a. Immunosuppression
b. Antigenic disguise
c. Antigenic variation
d. Resistance to macrophage killing

24. Auto infection is usually caused by:
a) Ascaris lumbricoides
b) Taenia solium
c) Hymenolepis diminuta
d) Echinococcus granulosus

25. Which ONE of the following is a tissue parasites?
a) Ancylostoma duodenale
b) Wuchereria bancrofti
c) Trichuris trichiura
d) Trichinella spiralis

26. Which ONE of the following arthropods feed at twilight?
a) Reduviid bug
b) Tsetse flies
c) Sandflies
d) Mosquitoes

27. Flatulence is usually associated with:
a) Trichomonas tenax
b) Endolimax nana
c) Trichomonas hominis
d) Blastocystis hominis

28. Which ONE of the following is an¨}nuracellular blood protozoa?
a) Trùpqnosoma gambiense
b) Plasmodum viax
c) Trypanosoma rhodesiense
d) Leisimania tropica

29. Which ONE of the following helminths is associated with iron defficency anaemia?
a) Hookworms
b) Pinworm
c) Tapeworms
d) Flukes

Pathology Part 1 Question Paper

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