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Human Anatomy Question Paper

Human Anatomy

Course:Bachelor Of Surgery

Institution: Egerton University question papers

Exam Year:2013

EGERTON UNIVERSITY

FACULTY OF HEALTH SCIENCES
DEPARTMENT OF HUMAN ANATOMY

TUTORIAL QUESTIONS

1. During the course of development from embryo to old age, the following are possible terminations of the spinal cord
a. 1st sacral vertebra
b. Third lumbar vertebra
c. LI - L2 disc
d. (a), (b) and (c)
e. None of the above

2. Parasympathetic functions include the following except:
a. Stimulation of GI motility
b. Relaxation of GI sphincters
c. Promotes emptying of urinary bladder
d. Stimulates secretion of adrenal medulla fr
e. Constricts blood vessels of extremities

3. Proprioceptive fibers convey impulses from the following except:
a. Surface of the body
b. Muscles
c. Joints
d. Organ of Corti in the cochlea.
e. Eye

4. The cervical spinal cord in cross section shows:
a. Circular outline
b. Larger volume of grey matter
c. Massive posterior grey matter
d. Well developed reticular process
e. A posterior intermediate sulcus

5. A reflex arc consists of:
a. An afferent nerve fiber
b. A receptor
c. Synapse
d. An effector
e. All the above

6. The large fibers in the medial bundle of the dorsal root are concerned with:
a. Pain
b. Touch
c. Pressure
d. Proprioception
e. All the above
7. Hemisection of the spinal cord (Brown-Sequard Syndrome) causes:
a. Loss of sensory impulses in the posterior white columns below the lesion on the same side
b. Bilateral loss of pain within the area of the lesion
c. Bilateral loss of thermal sense within the area of the lesion
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

8. The spinal cord:
a. EndsatL2-L3
b. has an average length as that of the femur
c. Contains posterior columns that convey temperature and proprioceptive ascending fibres
d. Is attached to coccyx.
e. (a), (b) and (d)

9. All of the following statements concerning the dorsal columns are true except:
a. They contain first-order neurons which synapse in the contralateral dorsal column nuclei
b. They contain first-order neurons mediating conscious proprioception from the limbs
c. Sensation from the lower limb is contained in the fasciculus gracilis while sensation from the upper limb is contained in the fasciculus cuneatus.
d. A lesion of the fasciculus gracilis may result in ataxia.
e. They contain fibres mediating either tactile or kinesthetic sensations, but not both.

10. The cauda equina:
a. Comprises nerve roots LI - SI
b. Is suspended in the lumbar cistern extending down to the level of L5
c. Comprises nerve roots L3 - S5
d. Is suspended in a meningeal sac filled with extracellular fluid
e. None of the above.

11. Regarding Spinal nerve roots:
a. Unite to form spinal nerves in the vertebral canal
b. They contain postganglionic fibres of the autonomic system
c. Comprise of a lateral and medial root
d. Are sheathed by a pia-glial membrane
e. All the above are true

12. Regarding posterior columns:
a. Fasciculus cuneatus lies medially
b. Fasciculus gracilis contains fibres from the upper limbs
c. Both contain crossed fibres
d. The fibres terminate in the pons
e. None of the above.

13. The shape of cells in pseudostratified epithelium is:
a. Squamous
b. Columnar
C. Cuboidal
d. Transitional
e. Spherical

14. All the following are TRUE of the basement membrane except:
a. Basement membrane components are synthesized solely by the epithelium.
b. All basal Iaminae contain type IV collagen.
c. The basal lamina contains an eletron-lucent called the lamina rara.
d. The lamina densa consists primarily of type IV collagen,
e. Fibronectin and laminin bind to integrins on epithelial and connective tissue cells.

15. All the following are TRUE about protein secreting epithelial cells except:
a. A well developed rough endoplasmic reticulum.
b. A supra nuclear golgi
c. Apical zone containing granules
d. A well developed smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
e. A distinct polarity with basal rough endoplasmic reticulum.

16. A defect in collagen cross-linking world result in which of the following symptoms?
a. Fever
b. Oedema
c. Poor wound healing
d. High blood pressure
e. Blindness

17. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
(A) All epithelia are lined with specialized connective tissue
(B) The avascular nature of epithelia limits its size
(C) Epithelial sheets contain little extracellular material at the lateral surfaces of the
individual cells
(D) 2 of the criteria for classifying epithelia are cell layer number and morphology of
the cells at the free surface
(E) epithelial cells are labile cells

18. Small, hair-like structures (that are not extensions of the plasma membrane) on the surface of some epithelial cells are called:
(A) Flagella
(B) Cilia
(C) Villi
(D) Plicae
(E) Microvilli

19. Which of the following heals quickest after an injury?
(A) Bone
(B) Muscle
(c) Nerve
(D) Epithelium
(E) ligaments

20. Small depressions in which some connective tissue cells reside are known as:
(A) Lumina
(B) Foramina
(C) Calculi
(D) Lacunae
(F) Icosedral space

21. All of the following statements concerning the popliteal space are correct EXCEPT
(A) this space is triangular
(B) the superior borders are produced by the hamstring tendons
(C) the inferior borders are produced by the medial and lateral heads of the gastrocnemius muscle
(D) the tibial nerve runs through the fossa in a vertical direction
(E) the posterior femoral cutaneous nerve descends across the fossa in the midline

22. The adductor tubercie is located on the
(A) greater trochanter
(B) medial epicondyle
(C) intertrochanteric crest
(D) proximal end of the femur
(E) linea aspera

23. All of the following statements concerning the obturator artery are correct EXCEPT
(A) it is a branch of the external iliac artery
(B) it distributes largely outside the pelvis
(C) it passes through the obturator canal
(D) it divides into posterior and anterior branches
(E) it gives off an acetabular branch

24. All of the following statements concerning the course of the femoral artery are correct EXCEPT
(A it descends into the lower limb by passing under the inguinal ligament
(B) it descends into the lower limb midway between the anterior superior spine of the ilium and the pubic symphysis
(C) it descends through the femoral triangle
(D) it descends through the adductor canal
(E) it descends through the femoral canal

25. All of the following statements concerning the obturator nerve are correct EXCEPT
(A) it is the principal preaxial nerve of the lumbar plexus
(B) it arises from the anterior branches of lumbar nerves 2, 3, and 4
(C) it descends along the lateral border of the psoas muscle
(D) it enters the thigh through the obturator canal
(B) it divides into an anterior and a posterior branch

26. Which of the following statements concerning the femoral nerve is correct?
(A) it is the largest branch of the lumbar plexus
(B) it is a preaxial nerve
(C) it is formed by anterior branches of the 2nd, 3rd, and 4th lumbar nerves
(D) it passes under the inguinal ligament medial to the psoas muscle
(E) it has no cutaneous branches

27. All of the following statements concerning the sciatic nerve are correct EXCEPT
(A) it arises from spinal cord segments L4 through S3
(B) it leaves the pelvis through the lower part of the greater sciatic foramen
(C) it extends from the inferior border of the piriformis muscle to the lower one-third of the thigh
(D) inferiorly, the nerve lies against the anterior surface of the adductor magnus
(E) it is crossed obliquely by the long head of the biceps femoris muscle

28. All of the following statements concerning the muscles of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg are correct EXCEPT
(A) the muscles are pre-axial
(B) the muscles insert onto the tuberosity of the calcaneus
(C) the contraction of these muscles produces flexion of the toes
(D) the tibial nerve innervates these muscles
(E) the plantaris muscle is located in this compartment

29. All of the following statements concerning the ligamentum capitis femoris are correct EXCEPT
(A) it is intracapsular
(B) it ends in the fovea of the head of the femur
(C) it is covered by a sleeve of synovial membrane
(D) it becomes taut in abduction of the femur
(E) it arises from the acetabular notch and the transverse ligament of the acetabulum

30. Which of the following structures separates the tibial collateral ligament from the overlying insertions of the sartorius, gracilis, and semitendinosus?
(A) ligamentum patellae
(B) deep infrapatellar space
(C) subcutaneous infrapatellar bursa
(D) bursa anserina
(E) oblique popliteal ligament

31. All of the following statements concerning the medial meniscus are correct EXCEPT
(A) it is fibrocartilage
(B) it is thicker at its external margins
(C) it attaches in the anterior intercondylar area of the tibia in front of the anterior cruciate ligament
(D) its posterior attachment is in the corresponding posterior fossa posterior to the origin of the posterior cruciate ligament
(E) it is crescent-shaped

32. Which of the following statements concerning the lateral meniscus is correct?
(A) it attaches to the anterior intercondylar area lateral to and in front of the anterior cruciate ligament
(B) its posterior termination is in the posterior intercondylar area behind the end of the medial meniscus
(C) it frequently gives rise to the posterior meniscofemoral ligament
(D) it is elastic cartilage
(E) it covers a somewhat smaller surface of the tibia than does the medial meniscus

33. All of the following statements concerning the anterior cruciate ligament are correct EXCEPT
(A) it arises from the nonarticular area in front of the intercondylar eminence of the tibia
(B) it extends backward to attach on the medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle
(C) it prevents posterior displacement of the tibia
(D) it is somewhat taut in all positions of flexion
(E) it is tightest in full extension and full flexion

34. Which of the following statements concerning the posterior cruciate ligament is correct?
(A) it attaches to the medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle
(B) it prevents posterior displacement of the tibia
(C) it is loose in full extension and full flexion
(D) it is extracapsular
(E) it gives rise to the posterior meniscofemoral ligament

35. The deltoid ligament involves all of the following bones EXCEPT the
(A) medial malleolus
(B) sustentaculum tali
(C) navicular
(D) medial cuneiform
(E) talus

36. The following structures pierce the clavipectoral fascia except:
(A). Thoraco acromial artery.
(B). Lateral thoracic artery
(B). Lateral pectoral nerve.
(D). Cephalic vein
(E). Lymphatics.

37. Regarding the deltopectoral triangle, and the TRUE statement:
(A). lt is located below the lateral third of the clavicle.
(B). It is bounded by pectoralis major and minor muscles
(C). The deltoid muscle is not one of its boundaries.
(D). It contains the infraclavicular group of axillary lymph nodes.
(E). (a) and (d).

38. The following are TRUE of the serratus anterior muscle except:
(A). Attaches to the last eight ribs at their angles
(B). Lies on the medial wall of the axilla
(C). If paralysed, the scapula ‘wings’ when the limb pushes against resistance
(D). Rotates the scapula on the chest wall.
(E). Attaches to the medial (vertebral) border of the scapula

39. The following are TRUE of the coraco-acromial arch except:
(A). Is made up of a strong ligament and the two processes to which it is attached.
(B). It is very adherent to the shoulder joint capsule.
(C). It is at times regarded as an accessory shoulder joint
(D). Has a bursa related to it.
(E). Stops the humeral head dislocating upwards.

40. Regarding the Pectoralis major muscle, find the TRUE statement:
(A). From a fixed origin, medially rotates the arm
(B). Is separated from the deltoid by a groove containing the basilic vein.
(C). Receives motor fibres from the 2nd to 6th intercostal nerves.
(D). Has an attachment to the scapula.
(E). None of the above.

41. Which of the following is FALSE about lateral pectoral nerve?
(A). Pierces clavi-pectoral fascia
(B). Supplies pectoralis minor
(C). Supplies pectoralis major
(D). Communicates with medial pectoral nerve.
(E). Has no cutaneous branch.

42. Regarding the accessory phrenic nerve, find the TRUE statement:
(A). Is a branch of the phrenic nerve
(B) s a branch of the long thoracic nerve.
(C). is branch of the nerve to subclavius
(D). Supplies the diaphragm
(E). (c)and(d).

43. The following are branches of the thoraco acromial trunk except:
(A). Clavicular
(B). Humeral
(C). Acromial
(D). CervicaI
(E). Pectoral

44. These muscles belong to the pectoral region except:
(A). Pectoralis major
(B). Serratus anterior
(C). Subclavius
(D). Subscapularis
(E). Pectoralis minor

45. Regarding pectoralis major which of these statements is FALSE?
(A). Is an accessory muscle of respiration.
(D). Is in contact with the cephalic vein in the delto pectoral triangle.
(C). The sternal head extends the humerus from a flexed position.
(D). Gains origin from aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle.
(E). Is innervated by the lateral pectoral nerve.

46. Regarding the clavicle, find the TRUE statement:
(A). When present, always has an epiphysis at its medial end.
(B). Has the apex of the lung behind its medial part.
(C). Develops by endochondral ossification.
(D). Is crossed posteriorly by the supraclavicular nerves.
(E). (a) and (b).

47. Regarding the pectoralis major muscle, find the TRUE statement:
(A). Is attached to the floor of the intertubercular sulcus (bicipital groove).
(B). Is supplied by branches of the three cords of the brachial plexus.
(C). Isa lateral rotator of the upper arm at the glenohumeral joint.
(D). Is involved in extension of the upper arm at the glenohumeral joint.
(E). Is used in climbing a rope by means of the upper limbs.

48. The roots for the supraclavicular nerves are:
(A). C1,C2&C3
(B). C3&C4
(C). C5 & C6
(D). C3,C4&C5
(E). C2,C3&C4

49. The following nerve may pierce the clavicle:
(A). Phrenic
(B). Dorsal scapular
(C). Suprascapular
(D). Spinal accessory
(E). Supraclavicular

50. The skin over the clavicle is innervated by:
(A). Lateral pectoral nerve.
(B). Nerve to subclavius
(C). Supraclavicular nerves.
(D). Medial pectoral nerve.
(E). Supra scapular nerve:

51. The clavicle is united to the upper limb by:
(A). Sternoclavicular ligament
(B). coracoclavicular ligament
(C). Coracoacromial ligament
(D). Transverse humeral
(E). None of the above.

52. Which of the following structures is embedded in the anterior sheath of the carotid sheath?
(A) sympathetic trunk
(B) thyrocervical trunk
(C) vertebral artery
(D) prevertebral fascia
(E) superior ramus of the ansa cervicalis

53. The common carotid artery usually bifurcates into the external and internal carotids at the level of the
(A) jugular notch
(B) cricoid cartilage
(C) upper border of the thyroid cartilage
(D) neck of the mandible
(E) sternoclavicular joint

54. Which of the following arteries enters the cranium to become the principal artery of the brain?
(A) external carotid
(B) internal carotid
(C) maxillary
(D) vertebral
(E) common carotid

55. Which of the following arteries passes obliquely upward deep to the posterior belly of the digastric and the stylohyoid muscles running deep to the submandibular gland?
(A) lingual
(B) facial
(C) maxillary
(D) superior thyroid
(E) occipital

56. The spinal cord:
a. Has two enlargements: thoracic and lumbar
b. Develops from the caudal portion of the neural tube
c. Has a central canal which communicates caudally with the sub-arachnaoid space at the level of the 2 lumbar vertebral body
d. Gives off 33 pairs of spinal nerves
e. The cervical and thoracic gray matter has a lateral horn where cell bodies for the sympathetic nerves are located.

57. The typical cells of the mammalian spinal ganglion are:
a. Unipolar
b. Bipolar
c. Tripolar
d. Multipolar
e. None of these

58. White substance of the spinal cord consists of:
a. Bundles of nerve fibers
b. Neuroglia
c. Fibrous astrocytes
d. Neuron cell bodies
e. Ependyma

59. The dorsal root contain:
a. Only myelinated fibers
b. Only unmyelinated fibers
c. Only small myelinated fibers and large unmyelinated fibers
d. Only small unmyelinated fibers and large myelinated fibers
e. None of the above.

60. Spinal reflexes require all those below except:
a. Peripheral receptors
b. Sensory neurons
c. Internuncial neurons
d. Motor neurons
e. Terminal effectors

61. Which of these are contents of the carvenous sinus?
a. Sixth nerve and internal carotid artery
b. Ill & IV cranial nerves
c. Pituitory fossa and sella
d. Va, Vb and VI cranial nerves
e. Internal Carotid artery and sella.

62. The following is TRUE about blood supply to the brain except:
a. Arterial blood supply to the brain is derived from the internal carotid and vertebral arteries
b. The two internal carotid arteries unite to form the basilar artery
c. Cortical branches of the antenor cerebral artery supply the anterior two thirds of the medial surface of cerebral hemisphere.
d. Middle cerebral artery supplies the temporal pole
e. Posterior cerebral artery supplies associative visual areas

63. WhIch of the following statements regarding development of CNS is TRUE:
a. Anterior neuropore closes in the 4th week
b. Mesoderm of the caudal cell mass gives rise to six lumbar and six sacral somites
c. The lower end of the central canal expands to form the terminal ventricle
d. Sulcus terminalis lies between the alar plate and the basal plate.
e. None of the above.

64. The following statements about the blood supply of the hypophysis are TRUE except:
a. The superior hypophyseal branches of the internal carotid artery supply the capillary beds of the pituitary stalk.
b. The capillary bed of the median eminence is supplied directly from the inferior hypophyseal branch of the internal carotid artery.
c. The capillary beds of the median eminence and the pituitary stalk are drained by the long and intermediate portal veins.
d. The short portal veins form a second capillary bed in the adenohypophysis and provide its entire blood supply.
e. The adenohypophyseal capillary bed drains into the cavernous sinus.

65. The following structures are found In the middle cranial fossa except:
a. Midbrain
b. Hypothalamus
c. Pituitary gland
ci. Internal carotid
e. Cavernous sinus.

66. Regarding the meninges of the brain, find the TRUE statement:
a. The space between the dura mater and the skull is occupied by the veins.
b. The pia mater bridges the gap between gyri.
c. The arachnoid granulations project with the inferior sagittal sinus.
d. The subdural space is occupied by the cerebrospinal fluid.
e. The arteries are seen in the subarachnoid space.

67. In the developing central nervous system, all the statements are TRUE except:
a. The dorsal lamina produces sensory elements and the basal lamina motor elements.
b. Rhombencephalon gives rise to secondary vesicles: rnyelencephalon and metancephalon.
c. Metancéphalon gives rise to the medulla oblongata in the adult brain.
d. Mesencephalon gives rise to the definitive midbrain.
e. Derivatives of the diencephalon includes thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus and subthalamus.

68. Regarding intra-cranial venous sinuses, all the statements are TRUE except:
a. The cavernous sinus is traversed by the abducens nerve.
b. The sphenoparietal sinus runs along the greater wing of sphenoid bone.
c. The inferior petrosal sinus is a tributary of the internal jugular vein.
d. The inferior sagittal sinus starts at the foramen ceacum.
a. The confluence of sinuses is located at the inion.

69. All the following statements about blood supply to the brain are TRUE except:
a. Is derived from the first part of the subclavian arteries via the vertebral arteries
b. Is mediated via the circle of willis
c. The basilar artery among others gives off labyrinthine arteries
d. Artery of cerebral haemorrhage supplies the internal capsule
e. Is characterized by an effective collateral system.

80. The grey matter is composed of:
a. Nerve cells
b. Unmyelinated axons
c. Myelinated axons
d. Capillaries
e. All of these

81. The gray rami are composed of:
a. Postganglionic fibers
b. Preganglionic fibers
c. Myelinated fibers
d. Unmyelinated fibers
e. Fibers to skeletal muscles

82. Stellate cells function as:
a. Impulse modifiers
b. Nutrient conveyors
c. Forerunners of neuroglia
d. Source of myelin
e. Function obscure

83. Which is the deepest layer of cells in the cerebral cortex?
a. Lamina zonalis
b. Lamina granularis
C. Lamina pyramidaris .
d. Laminaganglionaris .
e. Lamina multiformis

84. Myelin sheath of the central nervous system is provided by:
a. Ependymal cells
b. Oligodendrocytes
c. Fibrous astrocytes
d. Microglial cells
e. Protoplasmic astrocytes

85. The following statements on Neuroglia are TRUE except:
a. Comprise all the neural cells of the central nervous system
b. Are all of ectodermal origin
c. Provide both chemical and metabolic support to neurons
d. Of the astrocyte type are affected in multiple sclerosis
e. Provie both metabolic and mechanical support to neurones.

86. Which of the following is TRUE about pyramidal cells of the cerebral cortex?
a. Are pyramidal in shape
b. They are only located in the motor precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe
c. The axons may enter white matter as projection, association or commissural fibres
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

87. Cerebellar lesions result in all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Muscular paralysis
b. Muscular hypotenia
c. Muscular incoordination
d. Ataxia
e. Intention tremor

88. The two axons of the Purkinje cells in the cerebellum terminate mainly in the:
a. Red nucleus
b. Substantias nigra
c. Thalamus
d. Dentate nucleus
e. Inferior olivary nucleus
89. The principal neuron of the cerebellum is:
a. Pyramidal cell
b. Stellate cell
c. Purkinje cell
d. Fusiform
e. Horizontal cells of cajal

90. Concerning the posterior spinocerebellar tract:
a. Begins in upper thoracic segments
b. Consists of large fibers
c. Fibers arise from cells of posterior grey column.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above.

91. The medulla oblongata:
a. Has a fourth ventricle but no central canal
b. Has fasciulus cuneatus in its ventral aspect
c. Has two anterior spinal arteries passing in front of it
d. Contains spinal tract of trigeminal nuclei
e. Is the part of the brainstem below the great motor decussation

92. Which of the following arteries arises from the posterior aspect of the external carotid at the level of the upper border of the posterior belly of the di- gastric?
(A) facial
(B) occipital
(C) lingual
(D) posterior auricular
(E) ascending pharyngeal

93. The vagus nerve leaves the skull through which of the following foramina?
(A) jugular
(B) internal acoustic
(C) foramen spinosum
(D) foramen ovale
(E) foramen lacerum

94. The middle pharyngeal constrictor arises from the
(A) pterygomandibular raphe
(B) cricoid cartilage
(C) thyroid cartilage
(D) torus tubarius
(E) hyoid bone

95. Which of the following muscles enters the pharyngeal wall in the gap between the origins of the middle and superior pharyngeal constrictor muscles?
(A) stylopharyngeus
(B) palatopharyngeus
(C) salpingopharyngeus
(D) thyrohyoid
(E) sternohyoid

96. Which of the following muscles of the pharynx is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve?
(A) superior pharyngeal constrictor
(B) salpingopharyngeus
(C) stylopharyngeus
(D) palatopharyngeus
(E) middle pharyngeal constrictor

97. Which of the following ganglia is a peripheral ganglion in the course of the parasympathetic innervation of the parotid gland?
(A) ciliary
(B) pterygopalatine
(C) submandibular
(D) otic
(E) geniculate

98. Which of the following nerves supplies parasympathetic fibers through the otic ganglion to the parotid gland?
(A) vagus
(B) glossopharyngeal
(C) facial
(D) hypoglossal
(E) accessory

99. The principal sensory nerve of the larynx is the
(A) recurrent laryngeal
(B) inferior laryngeal
(C) superior laryngeal
(D) glossopharyngeal
(E) cervical sympathetic trunk

100. Which of the muscles of the larynx is innervated by the external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve?
(A) lateral cricoarytenoid
(B) posterior cricoarytenoid
(C) thyroarytenoid
(D) transverse arytenoid
(F) cricothyroid

101. The superior laryngeal artery is a branch of which of the following arteries?
(A) lingual
(B) superior thyroid
(C) costocervical trunk
(D) thyrocervical trunk
(E) transverse cervical

102. The trachea begins at the level of the
(A) hyoid bone
(B) thyroid cartilage
(C) 4th cervical vertebra
(D) cricoid cartilage
(E) 2nd cervical vertebra

103. The pharynx terminates at the level of the
(A) hyoid bone
(B) 2nd cervical vertebra
(C) thyroid cartilage
(D) cricoid cartilage
(E) jugular notch

104. The following statements about the blood supply of the hypophysis are TRUE except:
(a). The superior hypophyseal branches of the internal carotid artery supply the capillary beds of the pituitary stalk.
(b). The capillary bed of the median eminence is supplied directly from the inferior hypophyseal branch of the internal carotid artery.
(c). The capillary bed of the median eminence and the pituitary stalk are drained by the long and intermediate portal veins.
(d). The short portal veins form a second capillary bed in the adenohypophysis and provide its entire blood supply.
(e). The adenohypophyseal capillary bed drains into the cavernous sinus.

105. The following structures are found in the middle cranial fossa except:
(a). Midbrain
(b). Hypothalamus
(c.) Pituitary gland
(d). Internal carotid
(e). Cavernous sinus.

106. Regarding the meninges of the brain, find the TRUE statement:
(a). The space between the dura mater and the skull is occupied by the veins.
(b). The pia mater bridges the gap between gyri.
(c). The arachnoid granulations project with the inner sagittal sinus.
(d). The subdural space is occupied by the cerebrospinal fluid.
(e). The arteries are seen in the subarachnoid space.

107. In the developing central nervous system, all the statements are TRUE except:
(a). The dorsal lamina produces sensory elements and the basal
lamina motor elements.
(b). Rhombencephalon gives rise to secondary vesicles: myelencephalon and metencephalon.
(c). Metencéphalon gives rise to the medulla oblongata in the adult brain.
(d). Mesencephalon gives rise to the definitive midbrain.
(e). Derivatives of the diencephalon includes thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus and subthalamus.

108. Regarding intra-cranial venous sinuses, all the statements are TRUE except:
(a). The cavernous sinus is traversed by the abducens nerve
(b). The sphenoparietal sinus runs along the greater wing of sphenoid bone.
(c). The inferior petrosal sinus is a tributary of the internal jugular vein
(d). The inferior sagittal sinus starts at the foramen caecum
(e). The confluence of sinuses is located at the union .

109. All the following statements about blood supply to the brain are TRUE except:
(a). Is derived from the first part of the subclavian arteries via the vertebral arteries
(b). Is mediated via the circle of Willis
(c). The basilar artery among others gives off labyrinthine arteries
(c). Artery of cerebral haemorrhage supplies the internal capsule
(e). Is characterized by an effective collateral system.

110. During the course of development from embryo to old age the following are possible terminations of the spinal cord
(a). 1st sacral vertebra
(b). Third lumbar vertebra
(c). L1-L2disc
(d). (a), (b) and (c)
(e). None of the above

111. ParasympathetIc functions Include the following except:
(a). Stimulation of GI motility
(b). Relaxation of sphincters
(c). Promotes emptying of urinary bladder
(d). Stimulates secretion of adrenal medulla
(e). Constricts blood vessels of extremities

112. Proprioceptive fibers convey impulses from the following except:
(a). Surface of the body
(b). Muscles
(c). Joints
(d). Organ of Corti in the cochlea.
(e). Eye

113. The cervical spinal cord in cross section shows:
(a). Circular outline
(b). Larger volume of grey matter
(c). Massive posterior grey matter
(d). Well developed reticular process
(e). A posterior intermediate sulcus

114. A reflex arc consists of:
(a). An afferent nerve fiber
(b). A receptor
(C). Synapse
(d). An effector
(e). All the above

115. Cerebellar lesions result in all of the following EXCEPT:
(A). Muscular paralysis
(B). Muscular hypotonia
(C). Muscular incoordination
(D). Ataxia
(E). Intention tremor

116. The axons of the Purkinje cells in the cerebellum terminate mainly in the:
(A). Red nucleus
(B). Substantia nigra
(C). Thalamus
(D). Dentate nucleus
(E). Inferior olivary nucleus

117. The principal neuron of the cerebellum is:
(A). Pyramidal cell
(B). Stellate cell
(C). Purkinje cell
(D). Fusiform
(E). Horizontal cells of Cajal

118. Concerning the posterior spinocerebellar tract:
(A). Begins in upper thoracic segments
(B). Consists of large fibers
(C). Fibers arise from cells of posterior grey column
(D). All of the above
(E). None of the above.

119. The basilar artery:
a. Is formed at the infrjor border of the pons
b. Ends at superior border of the pons
c. Is formed by junction of 2 vertebral arteries
d. All the above
e. (b) and (C)

120. Pyramidal fibres:
a. Run twin post central gyrus of the brain
b. Pass through the external limb of the internal capsule
c. Most of them decussate in the lower medulla
d. Pass to the basal ganglia
e. Form second order neurons of cortico spinal tract.

121. Chemicals identified in neurons situated within the medulla include all of the following except:
a. Norepinephrine
b. Epinephririe
c. Acetyl choline
d.Dopamine
e. Methiomine and enkephalin

122. Components of the auditory system include all of the following except:
a. Spiral ganglia
b. Dorsal cochlear nucleus
c. Trapezoid body
d. Inferior olivary nucleus
e. Superior olivary nucleus

123. Regarding the medulla oblongata, which of the following is FALSE:
a. Corticospinal fibres cross the midline at the spinomedullary junction.
b. The abducent and vestibulocochlear nerves are attached at the pontomedullary junction
c. The facial nerve is attached behind the olive.
d. The olive contains the inferior olivary nucleus
e. All the above.

124. The following statements concerning neural crest tissue are TRUE except:
a. Is derived from the neural plate
b. Contributes to the developing alar lemma
c. Gives rise to the autonomic ganglia
d. Gives rise to the medulla of the suprarenal gland

125. The conscious perception of movement is mediated by which of the following receptors:
a. Meissner’s corpuscles
b. free nerveendings
c. Merkel’s receptors
d. joint capsules
e. Pacinian corpuscles

130. The vestibulospinal tract is compoed of fibers from the:
a. Superior vestibular nucleus
b. Medial vestibular nucleus
c. Inferior vestibular nucleus
d. All of these
e. None of these

131. Characteristics of the lateral vestibulospinal tract include all of the following except:
a. Arises exclusively from the lateral vestibular nucleus
b. Is somatotopically organised
c. Supplies all levels of the ipsilateral spinal cord
d. Powerfully facilitates alpha motor neurons that innervate extensor muscles

132. All of the following statements concerning the corticospinal tract are TRUE except:
a. Fibres of this tract arise from precentral gyrus, postcentral gyrus and premotor area
b. Fibres of this tract are distributed to all levels of the spinal cord.
c. Approximately 80% of corticospinal fibres cross in the pyramidal decussation.
d. Fibres arising from the post central gyrus terminate upon neurons in the ventral horn.
e. Lesions of the corticospinal tract produce an upper motor neuron paralysis.

133. The following about fibres in the pyramidal tract are TRUE except
a. Only 30% arise from area 4 in the precentral gyrus,
b. Traverse the posterior limb of the internal capsule
c. Ocupy the middle 3/5 of the basis pedunculi of the midbrain
d. Those that decussate in the medulla oblongata descend as the ventral cortical spinal tract.
134.The following cause hydrocephalus in infants except:
a. Thrombosis (or blockage) of the superior sagittal sinus
b. Blockage of aqueduct of sylvius
c. Thrombosis of the cavernous sinus ,
d. Blockage of foramina of Magendie

135. Concerning the subclavian vessels, find the TRUE statement:
a. The thyrocervical trunk gives the highest intercostal and deep cervical branches.
b The only tributary to the subclavian vein is external Jugular vein
c. The deep branch may be replaced by the desbending scapular artery.
d. Participate in supplying blood to the brain.

136. All these statements about the neck are TRUE except:
a. The jugular notch is at the level of C2:
b Common carotid bifurcates at level of C3.
c. Carotid sheath encloses common carotid, internal jugular vein, the vagus and external and internal carotid arteries. V
d. Tracheostomy may be best done through 2nd and 3rd tracheal rings after retracting the isthmus
of the thyroid gland.
e. The upper boarder of thyroid cartilage is at the level of the 4th cervical vertebrae.

137. A nerve hooking around the right subclavian artery is:
a. Phrenic
b. Sympathetic
c. Recurrent laryngea
d. Vagus
e. All of the above.

140. Which o these has no relationship with cricoid cartilage.
a. Site of supra sternal notch. V
b. Site of middle cervical ganglion.
c. Inferior thyroid artery swings medially posterior to the common carotid artery.
d. Omohyoid crosses the common carotid artery.
e. Cricopharygeus joins the oesophageal muscle coat.

141. The scalenous anterior is an important landmark in the neck, which nerve runs on it:
a. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
b. Ansa cervicalis
c. Sympathetic trunk
d. Phrenic nerve.
e. Lower trunks of brachial plexus.

142. Which of the following structures is a remains of Meckel’s cartilage:
a. Stylomadibular ligament
b. Maxilla bone
c. Spheno mandibular ligament
d. Stylohyoid ligament
e. Temporal bone

143. The roots of the brachial plexus enter the posterior triangle of the neck by emerging through the interval between the following structures:
a. Scalenus anterior and sternomastoid.
b. Scalenus anterior and clavicle.
c. Scalenus anterior and scalenus medius.
d. Scalenus medius and scalenus posterior.
e. Scalenus posterior and levator scapulae.

144. The following nerves are part of the cervical plexus except
a. Greater occipital
b. Auriculo temporal
c. Supraclavicular
d. Transverse cutaneous nerve of neck.
e. Great auricular nerve.

145. The following are branches of the superior cervical ganglion except:
a. Middle cardiac branch
b. Internal carotid nerve.
c. Gray rami communicantes
d. Pharyngeal branches.
e. Arterial branches.
146. The omohyoid, the sterno-cleido mastoid and the posterior belly of the digastric muscles form the boundaries of the following triangle?
a. The submandibular.
b. The mental.
C.. The carotid.
d. The omoclavicular.
e. The muscular.

147. Which of the following nerves characteristically ascends in the neck along the posterior border of the sterno-cleido mastoid?
a. The greater occipital
b. The great auricular
c. The lesser occipital
d. The transverse cervical
e. The medial supraclavicular.

148. The fascia on the deep aspect of the scalene muscles, which spread over the cervical pleura, reinforcing it and giving it a superior support, is known as which of the following fasciae?
a, Buccopharyngeal.
b. Sibson’s
c. Axillary
d. Pretracheal
e. Alar.

150. Beginning below at the sternoclavicular joint and terminating above midway between the angle of the mandible and the mastoid process describes the course of which of the following?
a. Thyroglossal duct
b. Common carotid artery
c. Pyramidal lobe
d. Recurrent laryngeal
e. Sternocleido mastoid muscle

151. Proprioception to the sternocleidomastoid muscle is provided by:
a. Spinal part of accessory nerve
b. Cranial part of accessory nerve
C. Both the parts of the accessory nerve.
d’. Fibres from C2 and C3
e. Fibres from C3 and C4

152. Regarding the root of the neck, all the following statements are TRUE except:
a. The subclavian artery passes into the neck behind the sternoclavicular joint.
b. Phrenic nerve runs anterior to the scalenus anterior muscle.
c. The first and largest branchof the subclavian artery is the vertebral artery.
d. The nerve supply of scalenus anterior muscle is from the posterior primary rami of C5 and C6.
e. The root of the neck lies below the apex of the lung—

153. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding scalenus muscles:
a. Scalenus anterior muscle is inserted to the scalene tubercie on the inner border of the first rib.
b. Scalenus anterior muscle arises from the anterior tubercles of the four typical cervical vertebrae. -
c. Scalenus anterior is separated from the scalenus medius by the subclavian artery.
d. Scalenus medius assists in stabilising in the neck.
e Scalenus posterior is innervated by the phrenic nerve.

154. Regarding the first rib, which of the following statements is FALSE:
a. It is the flattest rib
b. It is the shortest rib
c. It is the most curved rib
It has a prominent tubercie on the outer border of its upper surface
e. It has the subclavian groove where the subclavian artery lie in relation to the bone. ‘-

155. Contents of the posterior triangle of the neck will not include:
a. Accessory nerve
b. Suprascapular arteries
c. Supraclavicular lymph nodes
d. Occipital lymph nodes
e. The prevertebral fascia

156. One of the structures going between scalenus anterior and scalenus medius is:
a. Phrenic nerve
b. Sympathetic trunk
C. subclavian vein
d. Accessory nerve.
e. Subclavian artery.

157. Which of the following structure is not enclosed by the carotid sheath:
a. Vagus nerve
b. Root of Ansa cervicals.
c. Deep cervical lymph nodes
d. External jugular vein
e. Internal carotid artery.

(158). Connective tissue has all of the following compartments EXCEPT:
(A). Cells derived from mesoderm
(B). Cells that commonly secrete collagen
(C). Extracellular fibres.
(D). Amorphous ground substance.
(E). Abasallamina.

(160). Regarding fibroblasts, the following statements are TRUE except:
(A). Have stellate or elongated fusiform shape.
(B). Have cytoplasm rich in rough endoplasmic reticulum.
(C). Are heavily involved in protein synthesis.
(D).Are found in all types of connective tissue.
(E). None of the above.

161. Which of the following statements is TRUE:
(A)a. Collagen fibres are white.
(B). Macrophages produce heparin and histamine
(C). Mast cells produce antibodies.
(D). Plasma cells are phagocytic.
(E). All the above.

162. The word “Collagen” can be used for:
(A). Yellow fibres in intercellular substance
(B). Adipose tissue
(C). Loose areolar tissue
(D). White fibres in interöellular substance
(E). Reticular fibres

165. With regard to the asymmetry of all membranes, all the following statements are TRUE except:
(A). Peripheral proteins are restricted to the internal (cytosolic) side of the plasma
membrane.
(B). Carbohydrate groups can be associated with either the external (extracellular)
or internal (cytosolic surface of the plasma membrane).
(C). The lipid bilayer has an asymmetric distribution of phospholipids.
(D). The N terminus of transmembrane protein extends from the external surface of
the plasma membrane.
(E). The C terminus of transmembrane protein extends into the cystol.

166. The principal proteoglycon with which collagen type IV interacts is:
(A). Fibronectin
(B). Laminin
(C). Entactin
(D). Heparin sulfate
(E). Dermatan sulfate

167. Connective tissue is composed of:
(A). Cells
(B). Matrix
(C). Fibres
(E). Only (a) & (b)
(E). (a), (b) and (c)

168. Connective tissue proper is classified depending on the following except:
(A). Type and number of cells
(B). Type of fibres
(C). Arrangement of fibres
(D). Amount of matrix (ground substance)
(E). All the above

169. On bones, the following are TRUE except:
(A). All bones whether long, short, irregular, sesamoid etc have diaphysis and
epiphyseal parts.
(B). Primary ossification centres of long bones develop in diaphysis.
(C). Maxilla, vault of skull and part of mandible ossify by intramembranous
ossification.
(D). Osteoprogenitor, osteoblasts and osteoclasts cells are found in a growing bone.
(E). Long bones have one growing end.

170. As regards osteoblasts:
(A). They are polygonal cells.
(B). They secrete type II collagen
(C). They do not respond to parathyroid hormone
(D). They lack extensive rough endoplasmic reticulum.
(E). None of the above.

171. Hyaline cartilage is:
(A). Very vascular
(B). Extremely elastic
(C). Found at articular ends of long bones.
(D). Found in the epiglottis and ear lobule.
(E). None of the above.

172. The following bones ossify by intramembranous ossification except:
(A). Vault of the skull
(B).Patella
(C). Maxilla
(D). Part of the mandible
(E). None of the above.

173. An example of a primary cartilaginous joint is:
(A). The joint between the clavicle and scapula
(B). The joint between the clavicle and sternum
(C).The joint between the first rib and sternum
(D). The joint between the first rib and scapula
(E). The joint between the scapula and humerus

174. The following cells are found in a growing bone except:
(A). Osteoprogenitor cells.
(B). Osteoblasts
(C). Osteocytes
(D). Osteoclasts
(E). None of the above.

175. Diaphysis and epiphysis are parts of:
(A). Short bones.
(B). Long bones.
(C). Flat bones.
(D). Irregular bones.
(E). Sesamoid bones.

176. Osteoblasts are correctly characterised by which of the following statements?
(A). They are derived from monocytes.
(B). They synthesize high quantities of acid phosphatase.
(C). They are involved in matrix formation but not mineralization.
(D). They have less rough endoplasmic reticulum than do osteocytes.
(E). They possess P.T.H. receptors.

177. Which of the following statements is TRUE of bone development?
(A). Adult bone formed by intra membranous ossification differs microscopically
from cartilage derived bone.
(B). The periosteal collar is primarily responsible for the growth in length of long
bones.
(C). Osteoblastic activity differs between intramembranous and endochondral
ossification.
(D). Healing of fractures recapitulates many of the events in bone development.
(E). Woven bone isforemed only during intramembranous ossification.

(178). Eosinophils are best described as being:
(A). Less numerous in peripheral blood than basophils.
(B). More numerous in peripheral blood than neutrophils.
(C). More numerous in peripheral blood than lymphocytes.
(D). More numerous in patients with Schistosomiasis
(E). Incapable of phagocytosis. .

180. In the adult, blood continues to be made in the:
(A). Spleen
(B). Pancreas
(C). Lymphnodes
(D). Liver
(E). Bone marrow of short, irregular and flat bones.

181. The following statement are TRUE except:
(A). Neutrophils are the most common type of agranulocytes.
(B). The drumstick chromosome is visible males only.
(C). The mature neutrophil usually has 5 to 8 lobes.
(D). Neutrophils contain granules with the enzyme alkaline phosphatase.
(E). All the above.

182. Blood plasma:
(A). Forms 70% of total blood volume
(B). Is osmosically active due to presence of inorganic ions.
(C). Contains plasma proteins that form 1%
(D). Contains hormones and pigments.
(E). All the above.

183. Thrombocytes:
(A). contain actin and myosin filaments similar to those in skeletal muscle.
(B). Are involved in the immune reactions to antigens.
(C). Are mainly formed in the liver and spleen.
(D). They are fragments of cytoplasm without a plasma membrane.
(E). All the above.

184. White blood cells in the adult are:
(A). 6O% lmphocytes.
(B). 3- 7% nonocytes.
(C). 20 - /O neutrophils
(D). I - 3% monocytes.
(E). 10- 15% eosinophils.

185. Which of the following statements about erythrocytes is FALSE
(A). There are approximately 5 million per mm3 of blood.
(B). They constitute about 45% of the total volume of blood.
(C). They lack organelles
(D). None of the above.
(E). (a) and (b) only.

186. In adults, red bone marrow persists in the following except:
(A). Skull bones.
(B). Pelvic bones
(C). Vertebrae
(D). Sternum
(E). Humerus

187. The epithellum of the epididymis is:
(A). Simple cuboidal
(B). Simple squamous
(C). Transitional
(D). Pseudostratified columnar with stereocilia.
(E). Pseudostratified columnar with microvilli.

190. Pseudostratified ciliated epithelium lines which of the following organs?
(A). Trachea
(B). Stomach
(C). Gall bladder
(D). Epididymis
(E). Duodenum I

191. All the following are part of junctional complex except:
(A). Gap junctions
(B). Zonula occludens
(C). Desmosome
(D). Macula adherens
(E). Microvilli

192. Stratified squamous epithelium is found lining:
(A). The vagina
(B). The anterior 2/3rds of the tongue
(C). The rectum 4
(E). (a)&(b)

193. Which epithelium lines urinary bladder:
(A). Pseudostratified columnar ciliated.
(B). Simple cuboidal
(C). Simplecolumnar
(D). Simple squamous .
(E). Transitional ,

194. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium with stereocilia is found in:
(A). Epididymis
(B). Renal proximal convoluted tubule
(C). Trachea
(D). Bronchioles
(E). Alveoi

195. Oesophagus is lined by the following epithelium
(A). Transitional
(B). Non-keratinizing stratified squamous
(C). Simple columnar.
(D). (a) and (b)
(E). (b) and (c)

196. Microvilli are a characteristic feature of:
(A). Secretary cells
(B). Neurotransmitter cells
(C).Absorptive cells
(D). Fibroblasts
(E). Endocrine cells.

197. Simple squamous epithelium lines:
(A). Alveoli of the lungs.
(B). Lymphatics
(C). Peritoneal cavity
(D). Pleural cavity
(E). All of the above

198. Regarding cell division:
(A). Mitosis involves two segmental cell divisions.
(B). Chiasmata formation occurs in meiosis only.
(C). Meiotic division results in production of four diploid daughter cells.
(D). Prophase is followed by Telophase then the G2 phase.
(E). None of the above.

199. Which of the following is not TRUE about mitochondria?
(A). Are either ovoid or rod shaped.
(B). Can be seen with the light microscope.
(C). Their double unit membrane cannot be seen under light microscopy.
(D). Produce energy-rich compound ATP.
(E). Have cristae which increase the surface area for biochemical reactions.

200. During mitosis chromosomes first become visible in:
(A). Telophase
(B). Metaphase
(C). Prophase
(D). Anaphase
(E). Interphase

SECTION B: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (SAQs)
Instructions: answer all questions
1. With a well labeled diagram outline all the features seen in a transverse section of the medulla at the level of decussation of the pyramids.
2. Outline the cellular components of the pituitary and thyroid gland
3. Describe the blood supply to the spinal cord.
4. Outline the four histological differences and similarities between a lymph node and a tonsil.
5. Outline all the ascending tracts and state the function of each
6. outline the branches of the 1st and the 3rd parts of maxillary artery
7. outline the histological components of the adrenal gland
8. Outline cellular components of the cerebral cortex.
9. Outline the pathway for pains right from reception to the cerebral cortex.
10. Describe the venous sinuses of the brain stating the paired and non paired ones.
11. briefly describe the development of the spinal cord
12. outline the derivatives of the 2nd pharyngeal arch.
13. state the is the principal of radiological imaging and state four techniques in radiology.(5 marks)
14. Outline the histological layers of the cerebral cortex and indicate the type of cells contained in each layer.(5mrks)

15. Outline the cellular components of pituitary gland giving examples of the hormones they secrete (5mrks)

16. Outline the pain pathway from the receptor to the cerebral cortex (5mrks)

17. outline five congenital anomalies associated with the development of the lower limbs and state one major cause for each of the anormaly(5 marks)
18. distinguish between femoral, direct and indirect inguinal hernia(5 marks)
19. Outline the boundaries and contents of the carotid triangle(5 marks)
20. Describe the term positive tredrenbergs’ sign and describe the factors responsible for this condition(5marks)

21. State the cause of the following conditions and all the muscle affected in each of the following conditions(5marks)
a. wrist drop
b. Krumpkes paralysis
c. Elb Duchunne palsy
d. Ape hand
e. Craw hand
22. Briefly describe the development of the tongue and state three congenital anormaly(5marks)

23. Outline the histological components of the adrenal gland.(5 marks)

24. 12. Outline the blood supply to the thyroid gland. (5mrks)

25. With a well labeled diagram illustrate the formation of the bracheal plexus.
26. Outline the histological components of the pituitary and thyroid gland
27. Outline five types of congenital anomalies associated with the development of the breast.
28. Outline the five groups of axillary lymph nodes and describe the areas drained by each node
29. Outline at three sites where lesions of the median nerve lead to craw hand and outline the muscles affected in this condition.
30. outline the course and ralations of the median nerve in the fore arm.
31. outline the structures lying below the flexor retinuculum of the wrist from medial to lateral
32. Outline the nerves and muscles affected in the following conditions :- (a) Klumpkes’ palarysis, (b) elb-duchune palsy, (c) winged scapula (d) carpal tunnel syndrome (e) ape hand.
33. outline the course, relation and all branches of the facial artery.
34. Outline the fate map of the cells invaginating through the primitive

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