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Him200: Pharmacology Paper I Question Paper
Him200: Pharmacology Paper I
Course:Bachelor Of Surgery
Institution: Kenyatta University question papers
Exam Year:2007
KENYATTA UNIVERSITY
UNIVERSITY EXAMINATIONS 2007/2008
FINAL EXAMINATION FOR THE DEGREE OF BACHELOR OF
MEDICINE AND BACHELOR OF SURGERY
HIM 200: CLINICAL PHAMACOLOGY PAPER 1
DATE: FRIDAY, 30TH NOVEMBER 2007
TIME: 2.00 – 5.00 PM.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS : TOTAL MARKS 100
INSTRUCTIONS: Choose the best response out of the alternatives following the
question stem.
1.
The following statements are True of Diuretics Except
A)
Acetazolamide acts by bicarbonate depletion in the proximal convoluted
tubule.
B)
Furosemide, bumetamide and Torsemide are loop diuretics and are
sulfonamides and may be association with stevens – Johnson’s reaction
C)
Thiazide directics are useful first line therapy for hypertension
D)
Concurrent use of NSAIDS has no blunting effect on diuretic effect of
loop diuretics.
2.
The following statements are true of beta receptors Except
A)
?-Blockers switch the heart from 02 wasting FA to 02 saving glucose
metabolism when used in treatment of angina
B)
Despite causing coronary vasoconstriction ?-blockers are useful in
angina due to their effect on diastolic filling time of the coronary vascu-
lature.
C)
Carvedilol and metoprolol are predominantly eliminated via the liver
where as atenolol via the kidney
D)
Cardio selective ?-blockers like atenolol Bisoprolol, metoprolol and
mebivol are contraindicated in patients with Bronchial Asthma.
2
3.
The following statements are true of calcium channel Blockers Except
A)
The available calcium Channel Blockers act by decreasing L – Calcium
Channels allowing Ca++ entry into the myocytes
B)
Nimodipine has a role in subarachnoid haemorhage
C)
Amlodipine unlike nifedipine is useful in patients with critical Aortic
sternosis
D)
Verapanil is contraindicated in Wolf-parkinson-white sydrome with Atrial
fibrillation and sick sinus syndrome.
4.
In the treatment of Hypertension the following statements are true Except
A)
In treatment of isolated systemic Hypertension, calcium channel Blockers
and diuretics are preferred to B - Blockers
B)
Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitor can be safely used in
pregnancy
C)
Telmisartan is a useful substitute in patients who are ACE in tolerant
D)
? – Blockers and diurectics act by decreasing Cardiac output whereas all
other antihypertensives decrease peripheral Vascular resistance
5
Which of the following statement(s) is incorrect regarding treatment of Heart
Failure?
A)
?- adrenergic blockers are contraindicated due to their Heart Lowering
effect
B)
Catecholamines act by stimulating AMP whereas Digoxin acts by
inhibiting Na+/K+ ATPase
C)
Concurrent use of Erythromycin and Digoxin may result in Digoxin
toxicity
D)
None of the above.
6.
Which of the following statements is false?
A)
Concurrent use of sildenafil and isosorbide mononitrate may result in
Hypotension
B)
Nitroprusside acts as nitric oxide donor resulting in decreased vascular
ca++ and hence vasodilatation
C)
Amiodarone mainly acts via inhition of k+ channels resulting in APD and
refractoriness but has properties of all classes in Vanghan – William
classification.
D)
Aderosine is an indirect ca++ channel antagonist useful in treatment of
supraventricular tachy cardia (SVT)
7.
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding antithrombotic?
A)
ASA irreversibly acetylates Co x 1 for the entire type of platelet
B)
Clopidogrel inhibits transformation of 9p IIb /IIIa receptor on platelet to
active form by irreversible prevention of binding by ADP sub receptor on
platelets
C)
Trofiban, Eptifibatide and abcimab are useful GP IIa/IIIb inhibitors in
treatment of myocardial infarction
D)
Unfractuated Heparin and low molecular weight Heparin are indirect
thrombin inhibitors which act by binding to Anthrombin III
3
8.
The following statements about antiepileptic drugs are correct.
A)
Valproic acid is the drug of choice in patients with generalized Epilepsy
syndrome having mixed seizure types
B)
Carbamazepine and pherytoin can worsen certain seizure types
including absence seizures
C)
Patients with myoclonic seizure resistant to Valproic acid, clonazepam
may be useful
D)
Ethosuximide is contraindicated in absence seizures,
9.
Which of the following is false in treatment of Diabetes mellitus?
A)
Combination therapy of Insulin analogues and metformin provides the
much-needed post prandial blood sugar control.
B)
Insulin glargine, an insulin analogue provides 24 basal insulin when
given once daily at night.
C)
Sulfonyurea act by shortening basal as well as glucason mediated
insulin secretion
D)
Metformin is a useful 1st line treatment for Type I D mellitus.
10.
In management of Parkinson’s disease, all are true Except
A)
Successful dopamine agonist therapy requires a higher dose of the
agonist, when the agonist is combine with levodopa
B)
Pergolide, a dopamine agonist acts directly on postsynaptic dopamine
(D2 ) receptors.
C)
Dopamine agonists e.g. pergolide are useful in treatment of
bradykinesias and gut disturbance, but less effective for tremor
D)
Long term use of metlyldopa for Hypertension has no association with
causation of parkinsonism
11.
Which of the following is true for Antipsychotics?
A) The best guide for dosing is plasma neuroleptic drug level
B) The best guide of effectiveness is clinical observation of a patient
C) The best guide is starting with an effective dose
D) The best guide is avoiding the side effects.
12.
Which of the following is true for extrapyramidal reations?
A)
Acute dystonic reaction occurs with chronic use of antipsychotics
B)
In akineisia, there is masked facies
C)
In akinesia there is increased spontaneity
D)
The rabbit syndrome occurs with chronic use of antipsychotic
Treatment
13.
Which of the following is incorrect for neuroleptic malignant sydrome?
A)
There is hyperthermia
B)
There is moderate extrapyramidal effects
C)
Autonomic dysfunction incontinence occurs
D)
There is delirium
4
14.
Which of the following is incorrect for for tardive dyskanesia?
A)
There is involuntary smacking
B)
There is “pill – rolling” tremor
C)
There is involuntary movement of extremities
D)
There is pelvic gyrations
15.
Which of the following is true for anti depressants
A)
The choice of which TCA or SSRI is determined by side effects profile
B)
The side effects that impact on the choice most are sedation and
Stimulation
C)
The TCAs are more stimulating than SSRT’s
D)
The use of SSRT should be avoided in patients with agitation
16.
Which of the following is true for tricycic anti depressant drugs?
A)
Initiate and increase dose two weekly
B)
If there is no significant therapeutic effect after ten days, increase
Dose
C)
If there is no significant improvement after one week obtain plasma drug
level
D)
A therapeutic trial last one month.
17.
Which of the following is false for antidepressants?
A)
Antidepressants affect the serotonergic system
B)
Antidepressants affect the catecholomineraic systems
C)
The SSRI’s block the presynoptic serotomin reuptake
D)
The (TCA’s) include sertrataline antidepressant
18.
Which of the following is false for antidepressant usage?
A)
They may be used to panic disorders
B)
They are indicated in post traumatic stress disorder
C)
They may be useful in attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
D)
They are useful in psychotic depression.
19.
Which of the following is false for anxiolytics?
A)
Benzodiazepine include Librium
B)
Barbiturates include dalmane
C)
Hypnotics include amytal
D)
Valium is a benizodiazepine.
20.
Which of the following is true for Benzodiazepines?
A)
They are effective in panic disorders
B)
Reevaluate need for medication every two weeks
C)
Initiate treatment at a moderate dose
D)
Caution patients on dry moth side effects
21.
Which of the following is false concerning drug treatment for obsessive
convulsive disorder?
A)
TCA are useful in the treatment
B)
SSRI are useful in management
C)
Chromipramine is not very useful in management
D)
A combination of therapies e.g. SSRI and Lithium may be useful.
5
22.
Which of the following is true for alcohol detoxification?
A)
Benzodiazepines are useful
B)
Barbitrates are frequently used
C)
Benzodiazepine loading dose is no longer used.
D)
Chlodiazepoxide is not as potent as diazeparm.
23.
Which of the following is false for opioid abuse / dependence?
A)
Methadone can be useful
B)
Psychotherapy may be beneficial
C)
Opioid substitution may be tried
D)
Alcoholic anonymous may be useful.
24.
Which of the following is true for withdrawal syndromes?
A)
The persistent desire to cut down only works after several weeks
B)
The substance is often taken in smaller amounts over longer periods
C)
A closely related substance may be taken to avoid withdrawal symptoms
D)
Some social activities are attended to avoid substance.
25.
The following are true of Colloidal bismuth compounds EXCEPT
A)
Over 99% of bismuth appears in stool
B)
Bismuth coats ulcers and erosions creating a protective layer against
acid and pepsin
C)
They are useful in muthdrug regimens for eradication of H. pylori
infection
D)
Are safe for patients with renal insufficiency.
26.
Which of the following antibiotic drugs, stimulate gastrointestinal mobility?
A)
Macrolides
B)
Penicillins
C)
Aminoglycosides
D)
Fluoroquinolines
27.
The following are mucosal protective agents except
A)
Sucral fate
B)
Prostaglandins
C)
Colloidal Bismuth compounds
D)
Kaolin and pectin
28.
The following statements are true concerning antacids Except
A)
Are weak bases that react with gastric Hcl
B)
Promote mucosal defense mechanisms by stimulating prostagladin
production
C)
Acid neutralizing capacity is independent of rate of gastric emptying
D)
Sodium bicarbonate is a systemic antacid.
29.
The following statements are true for H2 receptor antagonist except:
A)
Exhibit competitive inhibition at parietal cell –H2 receptor
B)
Reduce the volume of gastric secretion
C)
Are superior to proton pump inhibitors
D)
Are not recommended for pregnant women as they cross the placenta
6
30.
Proton pump inhibitors: Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding
A)
Decrease the risk of nosocornial pneumonia in patients taking them
B)
Are not metabolized by cytochromes
C)
Inhibit both fasting and meal associated acid secretion
D)
Are not indicated for patients with ulcers caused by NSAIDS.
31.
All of the following are complications following use of gonadotropins Except
A)
Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome
B)
multiple pregnancies
C)
Gynaecomastia in men Gynecomastia
D)
None of the above.
32.
Levothyroxine
A)
Oral preparation has a poor bioavailability
B)
Absorption is unaffected by drugs, food and intestinal flora
C)
Have increased metabolic clearance in patients with hyperthyroidism
D)
Are unaffected by drugs that induce hepatic microsonal enzymes
33.
Antithyroid agents - Thionamides
A)
Block uptake of iodine by thyroid follicular cells
B)
Have agranulocytosis as the most dangerous complication
C)
Are not accumulated by the thyroid gland
D)
Do not cross the placenta hence are safe for use in pregnancy.
34.
Cortisol
A)
Most of it circulates free unbound in blood
B)
Is a long – acting glucocorticocid
C)
Long term treatment cause latrogenic cushings syndrome
D)
Have mineral corticoid effects when given in physiologic doses.
35.
The following are adverse effects of hormonal contraceptives except
A)
Venous thromboembolic disease
B)
Depression
C)
Peptic ulcers
D)
Higher risk of myocardial infarction.
36.
Which of the following is true concerning synpatho mimetic agents in Asthma:
A)
Constrict airways
B)
Are best delivered by inhalation
C)
Epinephrine is the drug of choice
D)
Isoproterenol has duration of action for few minutes
37.
Which of the following is incorrect of pramlintide
A)
It is a synthetic analogue of armylin
B)
It is approved for use in type II and I Diabetis
C)
It reduces incidences of hypoglycemia
D)
Its normal doses are 15 mcg to 120 mcg subucutaneously
7
38.
Methlxanthine drugs
A)
Have minimal effects on the heart
B)
Theophylline, theobromine and caffeine are important ones
C)
Are strong diuretics
D)
On prolonged use induce tolerance
39.
Chromolyn Sodium
A)
Relieves bronchospasm
B)
Is effective in an attack of asthma
C)
Is inhaled as microfine powder or aerosolized solution
D)
Is in effective in exercise induced asthma
40.
Corticosteroids
A)
Relax smooth muscle of airway directly
B)
Are given routinely to all patients with Asthma
C)
Have anti-inflammatory actions
D)
Are preferred as oral agents are Inhalation drugs.
41.
In type 2 Diabetes mellitus
A)
Non selective ?-cell destruction occurs only
B)
Insulin replacement is invariably the treatment of choice
C)
Tissue resistance to insulin combined with relative deficiency in insulin
secretion oftenly respond to insulin therapy
D)
Oral hypoglycemics can increase insulin secretion by some agents.
42.
Which of the following is true of insulin preparations
A)
Rapid acting are turbid suspensions at neutral PH
B)
NPH is a short acting insulin
C)
Usually a combination of rapid or short acting and intermediate acting
Insulins are used
D)
Inhaled human insulin achieves good results as compared to injectables.
43.
The following statements are true regarding pencillins except
A)
Amoxicillin is highly effective against strep faeccallis
B)
Crystaline Penicillin is more effective against Gram negative organisms
than pencillin v.
C) All penicillins are cross sensitizing and cross reacting
D) Piperacillin is ? lactarnase resistant antibiotic
44.
The following drugs act by interfering with bacterial cell wall synthesis:
A)
Clindamycin
B)
Cycloserine
C)
Vancomycin
D)
Bacitracin
45.
Which of the following drug is effective in treatment of infections caused by
pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A)
Amikacin
B)
Cefuroxime
C)
Cefixime
D)
Ciprofloxacin
8
46.
Which of the following statements is true regarding Cephalosporins
A)
All 3rd generations cephaloporins are effective antimeningitic therapies
B)
Ceufroxime is active against haemophillus species
C)
4th generation cephalosporin have improved activity against gram
positive Infections
D)
Cephadroxil is effective therapy for urinary tract infection.
47.
A 70 year old man presents with urinary tract infection and is put on
Gentamycin for 7 days. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A)
Dose - adjustment is a must
B)
Monitoring of serum concentration if recommended to prevent toxicity
C)
Gentamycin is attained in higher concentration in urine than in plasma
D)
Gentamycin has no activity against streptococcal infections.
48.
Which of the following drugs is least likely to cause Neurotoxicity?
A)
Tetracycline
B)
Amikacin
C)
Cindamycin
D)
Penicillin
49.
Which of the following statements regarding co-trimoxazole is true
A)
It is mainly bacteriostatic
B)
Crystalluria one of the expected side effects may be prevented by
acidification of urine
C)
May precipitate jaudice in newborns.
D)
May cause iron deficiency anaemia following prolonged
49.
Which of the following drugs is least likely to cause photosensitive dermatitis
following administration
A)
Cephelosporins
B)
Perfloxacin
C)
Sulphonamides
D)
Tetracyclines
50.
Which of the following statements regarding isoniazid is true
A)
Fast acetylators may present with peripheral eropathy
B)
Dose should be adjusted in renal failure
C)
Adequately penetrates into macrophages and caseours material
D)
Increase in liver transaminases to x2 (twice) the normal warrants
discontinuation of therapy.
51.
A man with advanced HIV infection presents with disseminated mycobacterium
avium complex infection. Which of the following statements is false about his
treatment?
A)
The patient should be put on effective antituberculosis treatment
comprising of at least 4 drugs
B)
Use of rifabutin as a single agent may have prevented his condition
C)
Clarythromycin and Azythromycin must be part of his treatment regime
D)
Rifampicin has no role in his treatment
9
52.
Presence of food significantly interferes with the absorption of the following
drugs except
A)
Lincomycin
B)
Ampicillin
C)
Minocycline
D)
Erythromycin Estolate
53.
In treatment of patients presenting with lepromatous leprosy, which of the
following is true?
A)
Should be given Dapsone orally as a single agent for one year
B)
Erythema nodosom is a common allergic reaction warranting
discontinuation of treatment with Dapsone
C)
Rifamlicin should be part of his treatment
D)
Clofazimine is useful therapy for resistant cases only.
54.
Which of the following statements regarding Tetracyclins is FALSE
A)
Can be eliminated unchanged in urine
B)
Bile concentration is up to five times that in plasma
C)
Eroys cross resistance is complete
D)
All are contraindicated in renal failure.
55.
Which of the following statement is FALSE of macrolide antibiotics.
A)
Clarithromycin has a wider antibacterial spectrum than tetracyclin
B)
They act by binding to the 50’s ribosomal submit
C)
The bioavailability of the estolate salt of erythromycin is better than
stererate salt
D)
Use of azithromycin is not associated with increased opportunistic
infection.
56.
Which of the following statements is true of chloramphenicol?
A)
It predominantly undergoes billiary excretion
B)
May cause aplastic anaemia as a dose related event
C)
May cause circulatory collapse in newborns
D)
Its antibacterial activity includes anaerobic infections
57.
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)
Fusidic acid is NOT effective against ? lactamase producing
staphylococus aureus
B)
Spectinomycin is useful therapy for gonorhoea in penicillin allergic
patients
C)
Clindamycin is effective therapy for suspected infections caused by
anaerobic bacteria
D)
Topical bacitracin use may be associated with nephrotoxicty
58.
The following statements are true about Nitrofrurantoin EXCEPT
A)
It acts by inhibiting acetyl Co A synthesis
B)
It may cause polyneuritis as a side effect
C)
It achieves high renal concentration hence can be used in treatment of
pyelonephiritis
D)
Dosing should be given every six hours
10
59.
A pus specimen from a 5 year old patient with chronic osteomyelitis isolated
methicillin resistant staph aureus. Which of the following is the best option in
the treatment?
A)
Flucloxacillin would be the best drug to clear this infection
B)
Lincomycin is effective therapy
C)
Vancomycin would be useful
D)
Clindamycin is effective therapy
60.
Which of the following statements are true regarding antiamoebicides?
A)
Diloxanide furoate is effective against systemic and luminal trophozoites
B)
Metronidazole has better effect on extraluminal amoebiasis than luminal
trophozoites
C)
Pentamidine is a systemic amoebicide
D)
Iodoquinol is effective against intestinal wall and extraintestinal
trophozoites
61.
Which of the following statements are true regarding metronidazole?
A)
Higher doses of metronidazole is required for treatment of Giardia than
amoebiasis
B)
Metronidazole potentiates the anticoagulant effects of warfarin
C)
Disulfarum like reaction occurs following co-administration of Tinidazole
with alcohol
D)
Metronidazole and Tinidazole have similar toxicity profiles
62.
Which of the following statements are false?
A)
Treatment of choice for Toxoplasmosis is pyrimethamine plus
clindamycin plus folinic acid.
B)
Isopora belli responds best to cotrimoxazole
C)
Ballantidium coli is best treated with Tetracycline
D)
Cryptosporidium is best treated by metronidazole
63.
The following antimalarial drugs are effective against plasmodium malarial
gametocytes except
A)
Quinine
B)
Chloroquine
C)
Artemisinin
D)
Proguanil
64.
Which of the following statements concerning chloroquine is true?
A)
A loading dose is required at onset of therapy because chloroquine
blinds to nucleic acids and melanin
B)
Choroquine excretion is facilitated by alkalinization of urine
C)
May be safely co-administered with antacids
D)
Chloroquine and quinine are synergistic if co-administered
65.
Which of he following statements regarding antifungals are true?
A)
Whitefields ointment contain benzoic acid and salicylates
B)
Terbinafine is strictly a topical antifungal
C)
Gentian violet is a topical antifungal effective against gram negative
bacteria
D)
Maximum antifungal effect of zinc undecylenic acid is observed in
alkaline media
11
66.
The following are true statements regarding imidazoles except
A)
Clotrimazole is effective for topical use only
B)
Oral ketoconazole absorption is reduced by raising gastric PH
C)
Itraconazole has a wider antifungal spectrum and less toxicity compared
to ketoconazole
D)
Gynaecomastia is a known side effect of ketokonazole
67.
The following statements are true regarding antihelminthics except
A)
Praziquantel acts by increasing cell membrane permeability of calcium
ions thus causing spastic paralysis of the muscles.
B)
Metriphonate acts by cholinesterase inhibition
C)
Niclosamide is effective against Tenea group of cestodes
D)
Albendazole acts by inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis
68.
Which of the following statements are false
A)
Acyclovir is useful therapy in Treatment of Herpes Simplex
B)
Gancyclovir is effective in treatment of cytomegalovirus infections
C)
Interferons may kill multiplying bacteria
D)
Amantidine is used to prevent infection from influenza A viruses
69.
The following statements are true regarding anti-retroviral agents except
A)
Didanosine should be given on an empty stomach
B)
Lopinavir may be associated with hypoglycaemia
C)
Lipodystrophy is commonly seen with nucleoside reverse transcriptase
inhibitors
D)
Efavirence is contraindicated in pregnancy
70.
Which of the following drugs is matched appropriately to its toxicity
A)
Stavudine – lactic acidosis
B)
Zidovudine – myelo suppression
C)
Lamivudine – Hepato toxicity
D)
Abacavir – periheral neuropathy
71.
Which of the following statements are false regarding antiseptic agents
A)
Alcohol have poor penetration of organic matter
B)
Gluteraldehyde is mainly employed for liquid chemical sterilization.
C)
Formal dehyde may be used in surgical sterilizing equipment
D)
Chlorhexidine has the greatest antimicrobial activity at PH 7-8 where it
exists as a divalent ion.
72.
Cyclosporine is effective in organ transplantation. The immunosuppresant
action of the drug appears to be due to
A)
Activation of natural killer (NK) cells
B)
Blockade of tissue responses to inflammatory mediator
C)
Increased, catabolism of IgG antibodies
D)
Interference with antigen recognition
73.
A cell cycle specific anti cancer drug that acts mainly in the M-phase of the cell
cycle is
A)
Bleomycin
C)
Etoposide
B)
Cisplatin
D)
Methotrexate
12
74.
Which of the following drug is most likely to be required by a 5 year old boy with
chronic renal insufficiency
A)
Cyanocobalamin
B)
Desferoxamine
C)
Erythropoietin
D)
Filgrastin (G-CSF)
75.
when used as monotherapy a major toxicity of gemfibrocil is increased risk of
A)
bloating and constipation
B)
cholellithiasis
C)
hyperuricaemia
D)
liver damage
76.
Conversion of plasminogen to Plasmin is brought about by
A)
Aminocaproic acid
B)
Heparin
C)
Reteplase
D)
Warfarin
77.
For a drug with a narrow therapeutic window
A)
Mec therapeutic is close to the toxic level
B)
Toxicity is independent of concentration
C)
Toxicity will always occur irrespective of dosing interval
D)
Is the leading guide in choice of antibiotics
78.
Adverse drug reaction id best described by
A)
Side effects: necessitate drug cessation
B)
Toxic: normal dosage
C)
Quantal: Idio syncrasy
D)
Any response, unintended occurring at doses used in man which are
harmful
79.
Steady state of a drug is reached
A)
After 5 elimination of a drug 5 (five) half times
B)
For any multiple dosing interval
C)
When elimination is constant
D)
When uniform constant concentration is achieved
80.
The statement that best describes drug interaction is
A)
usually incidental but not purposeful
B)
harmful and never beneficial
C)
detrimental but never desired
D)
Combined net effect may be greater than one alone.
81.
The term that best describes an antagonist that interacts directly with the
agonist and not at all, or only incidentally with the receptor is
A)
Phamacological antagonist
B)
Partial agonist
C)
Physiologic antagonist
D)
Chemical antagonist
13
82.
Which of the following may be caused by pyridostigimine and neostigmine?
A)
Cyloplegia
B)
Diarhoea
C)
Irreversible inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase
D)
Reduced gastric acid secret ion
83.
Which one of the following can be blocked by atropine?
A)
Decreased blood pressure caused by hexamethonium
B)
Increased blood pressure caused by nicotine
C)
Tachycardia caused by acetylcholine
D)
Increased skeletal muscle strength caused by neostigmine
84.
Which of the following acts primarily on receptors located on the membrane of
the autonomic effector cells of muscle or glandular tissue
A)
Amphetamine
B)
Coccaine
C)
Norepinephrine
D)
Tyramine
85.
?2 –adrenoceptors selective stimulants are often effective in
A)
Angina due to coronary insufficiency
B)
Asthma
C)
Chronic heart failure
D)
Delayed or insufficient labor
86.
Adverse effects that limit the use of adrenoceptor blockers include
A)
Bronchoconstriction from apha blocking agents
B)
Heart failure exacerbation from beta adrenoceptor blockers
C)
Impaired blood sugar response with apha blockers
D)
Increase intraocular pressure with beta blockers
87.
Which of the following drugs can reverse one or more smooth muscle effects of
circulating histamine in humans
A)
Epinephrine
B)
Granisetron
C)
Dolasetron
D)
All the above
88.
Which of the following drugs is associated frequently with increased
gastrointestinal motility and diarhoea
A)
Corticosteroids
B)
Misoprostol
C)
Trimolol
D)
Zileuton
89.
Molecules from which Nitric oxide (No) can be released in vivo include all of the
following except
A)
Amyl nitrite
B)
Arginine
C)
Nitro prusside
D)
Histamine
14
90.
Which of the following statements concerning the effects of an aesthetic agents
is false
A)
Relaxation of bronchiolar smooth muscle occurs during halothane
anaesthesia
B)
Mild generalised muscle twitching occurs at high doses of Enflurane
C)
Chest muscle rigidity often follows the administration of fentanyl
D)
Severe hepatitis has been reported after the use of desflurane
91.
The inhalation anaesthetic with the fastest onset of action is
A)
Enflurane
B)
Isoflurane
C)
Nitric oxide
D)
Nitrous oxide
92.
Flumazenil reverses Respiratory Depression caused by which of the following
agents
A)
Fentanyl
B)
Ketamine
C)
Midazolam
D)
Propofol
93.
Factors that influence the action of local anaesthetics include all of the following
except
A)
Blood flow through the tissue in which the injection is made
B)
Activity of acetyl cholinestesase in the area.
C)
Use of vasoconstrictors
D)
Tissue PH
94.
Which of the following statements is true regarding succnyl choline
A)
Antagonism by Pyridostigmine during the early phase of blockage
B)
Blockade of autonomic ganglia
C)
Elevated serum enzymes indicative of muscle damage
D)
Histamine release in genetically determined population
95.
Which of the following phrases about atracirium is accurate?
A)
Depolarising blocker
B)
Inactivated by spontaneous breakdown
C)
Prolonged action in pseudo-cholinesterase deficiency
D)
Stimulates cardiac muscarinic receptors
96.
In which of the following condations is morphine NOT contraindicated?
A)
Adrenal insufficiency
B)
Biliary tract surgery
C)
Hypothyroidism
D)
Pulmonary oedema
97.
Which statement best describes syndrome of Aspirin overdose
A)
Bone marrow suppression and possibly aplastic anaemia
B)
Fever, hepatic dysfunction and encephalopathy
C)
Rapid, fulminant hepatic failure
D)
Hyperthermia, metabolic acidosis and coma
15
98.
Which of the following statements is true of paracetamol (Acetaminophen)
A)
Has anti inflamatory or antiplatelet effects
B)
Is a weak cox-1 and cox-2 inhibitor in peripheral tissues
C)
It is toxic at therapeutic doses
D)
Phenacetin is a toxic prodrug metabolized to acetaminophen
99.
The following are selective cox-2 inhibitors except
A)
Rofecoxib
B)
Celecoxib
C)
meloxicam
D)
Piroxicam
100. The advantage of using indomethacin over colchicine in the treatment of acute
attacks of gout is that it
A)
Is less likely to cause acute renal failure
B)
Is less likely to cause diarhoea
C)
Is less likely to precipitate sudden gastrointestinal bleeding
D)
Is more likely to reduce the symptoms of inflammation
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