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Medical Microbiology Ii Question Paper

Medical Microbiology Ii 

Course:Bachelor Of Science In Nursing And Public Health

Institution: Kenyatta University question papers

Exam Year:2009



KENYATTA UNIVERSITY
UNIVERSITY EXAMINATIONS 2009/2010
FIRST SEMESTER EXAMINATION FOR THE DEGREE OF BACHELOR OF
SCIENCE (NURSING AND PUBLIC HEALTH)
HNS 110: MEDICAL MICROBIOLOGY II

DATE: Wednesday 30th December, 2009 TIME: 8.00 a.m. – 10.00 a.m.

INSTRUCTIONS
• Answer ALL questions in Sections A, B and C.
• Draw neatly labeled diagrams where necessary.

SECTION A – MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (20 X 1 = 20 MARKS)
1.
Penicillase enzyme produced by some bacteria attacks the:

A.
Purine ring of some antibiotics

B.
Pyrimidine ring of some antibiotics

C.
Aromatic ring of some antibiotics
D.
ß-lactam ring of some antibiotics
2.
The acid-fastness in the cell envelope of Mycobacteria is due to the presence of:
A.
Dipicolinic
acid
B.
Teichoic
acid
C.
Stearic
acid
D.
Mycolic
acid
3.
Identify the false statement:

A.
Pathogenic bacteria are destroyed by specific antibodies.

B.
Pathogenic bacteria may use capsules to evade phagocytosis

C.
Pathogenic bacteria adhere to host cell surface before invasion.

D.
Pathogenic bacteria do not compete with normal flora for attachment onto
host cell surface.
Page 1 of 5

4.
The lowest temperature required to kill all bacteria in 10 minutes is:
A.
Decimal
reduction
temperature
B.
D-value

C.
Thermal death point
D.
Decimal
reduction
time.
5.
Viridans streptococci normally inhabit the oral cavity and they commonly cause
A.
Meningis
B.
Sub-acute
endocarditis
C.
Otitis
Media
D.
Pneumonia
6.
Bacterial cells can be described to:
A.
Be
prokaryotic
B.
Be
eukaryotic
C.
Reproduce
by
meiosis

D.
Have chitineous cell walls
7.
The following statements concerning bacterial spores are correct EXCEPT:

A.
They are mostly formed by gram positive rods.

B.
They are killed by autoclaving

C.
They contain much less water than vegetative cells.

D.
Their survival ability depends on their enhanced metabolic activity.
8.
Vaccine is derived from a Latin word “Vacca” meaning
A.
Drug
B.
Prophylactic

C.
Rabies
D.
Cow
9.
Which of the following mycobacteria is a scotochromorgens?
A.
Mycobacterium kansasii
B.
Mycobacterium scrofulaceum
C.
Mycobacterium bovis
D.
Mycobacterium leprae
10.
The following statements about sterilization are true EXCEPT:
Page 2 of 5

A.
Tyndallization is intermittent heating

B.
Pasteurization is sprocidal

C.
Steam under pressure is virucidal

D.
U.V. radiation kills bacteria
11.
A living microbe with no virulence that is used for vaccination is considered
A.
A
toxoid
B.
Attenuated
C.
An
antitoxin
D.
An
adjuvant
12. Mycobacterium leprae bacilli are:
A.
Demonstrated
with
Albert’s staining method.

B.
Demonstrated with ZN staining method

C.
Not acid fast bacilli
D.
Spherical
in
shape.
13.
Which of the following groups of filters are the most effective?

A.
Chamberland and Doulton filters.

B.
Seitz and Sterimat filters

C.
Carlson and Seitz filters

D.
Membrane and HEPA filters
14.
The mechanism of virulence in Mycobacteria tuberculosis is called
A.
Intracellular
pathogenesis
B.
Cellular
pathogenesis
C.
Intercellular
pathogenesis
D.
Subcellular
pathogenesis
15.
Which of the following statements about UTI is TRUE?

A.
UTIs are 10 times more prevalent in women than men.

B.
More than 90% of all women experience UTI at least once in a lifetime.

C.
Less than 80% of all UTI cases are due to Escherichia coli.

D.
Most UTI cases can be protected by vaccination.
16.
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for Early onset neonatal GBS disease
prophylaxis.

A.
Premature rapture of membranes
Page 3 of 5

B.
Maternal intrapartum temperature lower than 36.4oC.
C.
Multiple
gestation
D.
Preterm
labor
17.
Disinfection with quaternary ammonium compounds CANNOT be used where
nosocomial infections caused by _______________________ are prevalent.
A.
Streptococcus agalactiae
B.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C.
Escherichia coli
D.
Proteus mirabilis
18.
An ideal disinfectant should NOT
A.
Be
fast-acting

B.
Be non-toxic to humans

C.
Have a residual effect on treated surfaces

D.
Be affected by physical agents
19.
Cephalosporins kill bacteria by:

A.
Inhibiting protein synthesis

B.
Inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis

C.
Inhibiting cell wall synthesis

D.
Inhibiting cell membrane synthesis
20.
The clinical specimen of choice for laboratory diagnosis of diphtheria is
A.
Blood
B.
Cerebrospinal
fluid
C.
Throat
swab
D.
Skin
scrapings

SECTION B – SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (5 x 8 = 40 marks)
1.
Highlight the classification of Enterobacteriaceae into their five tribes.
2.
Briefly outline the contributions of Louis Pasteur to field of Microbiology.
3.
Explain any five mechanisms by which pathogens escape/evade the host’s
immunity.
4.
a)
What are the atypical mycobacteria?

[1 mark]
Page 4 of 5
b)
Outline the four classes of atypical mycobacteria by Runyon’s
classification
method.
[4
marks]
5.
Briefly describe the antigenic structure of Staphylococcus aureus with the aid of a
diagram.
6.
Describe the laboratory diagnosis and treatment of gonorrhoea.
7.
Explain how aeration influences bacterial growth.
8.






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