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Mls 2302 : Clinical Protozoology Question Paper

Mls 2302 : Clinical Protozoology

Course:Bachelor Of Science In Medical Laboratory Sciences

Institution: Jomo Kenyatta University Of Agriculture And Technology question papers

Exam Year:2012

JOMO KENYATTA UNIVERSITY
OF
AGRICULTURE AND TECHNOLOGY

University Examinations 2012/2013

SECOND YEAR FIRST SEMESTER EXAMINATION FOR THE DEGREE OF BACHELOR OF SCIENCE IN MEDICAL LABORATORY SCIENCES

MLS 2302 : CLINICAL PROTOZOOLOGY

DATE: AUGUST 2012 TIME: 2 HOURS

SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTONS (20 MARKS)
INSTRUCTIONS: ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION

Q1. In the disease Babesiosis the incidental host is:

(a) The tick.
(b) The human.
(c) The mosquito.
(d) The rodent.

Q2. Which one of the following statements is not true about Entamoeba histolytic cysts?

(a) May possess red blood cells in their cytoplasm.
(b) Can be recognized by the presence of a hyaline cell wall.
(c) Have a glycogen mass mainly in the young cyst forms.
(d) Contain peripheral chromatin that is evenly distributed.

Q3. One of the following is characteristic of Entamoeba hartmanni. Which one is it?

(a) The average size of the trophozoite is 12 to 25 m.
(b) The peripheral chromatin of the trophozoite is coarse and unevenly distributed.
(c) The cysts typically have nuclei which are smaller than the trophozoite nuclei.
(d) The karyosome is large and central

Q4. Entamoeba polecki are unique in comparison to other protozoan Entamoeba species in that:

(a) They have an average size of 12 to 18 m.
(b) They possess pointed chromatoid bars that may have splintered ends.
(c) They have a nondescript glycogen mass.
(d) They contain only one nucleus in the cyst stage.

Q5. Which one of the following statements is false concerning Entamoeba gingivalis?

(a) They display active motility.
(b) Their food vacuoles may contain bacteria and epithelial cells.
(c) They lack the cyst form and can therefore survive passage through the stomach.
(d) They are morphologically similar to E. histolytica.

Q6. In general, how regularly should an ocular micrometer be calibrated on a microscope that is used for determining parasite measurements?

(a) Once a year.
(b) Once a month.
(c) Twice a year.
(d) Every two years.

Q7. E. histolytica trophozoites can easily be confused with:

(a) Yeast cells.
(b) Polymorphonuclear white blood cells.
(c) Red blood cells.
(d) Monocytes.

Q8. The presence of Charcot-Leyden crystals in a stool specimen is an indication of:

(a) A flagellate infection.
(b) Improper specimen processing.
(c) An immune response.
(d) Plant based contamination.

Q9. An ocular micrometer was being calibrated using the 10X objective. At the point where the ocular scale and the stage scale coincided, the number of stage micrometer units was determined to be 0.3 while the number of the ocular micrometer units was 20. The number of microns equivalent to each unit on the ocular micrometer is therefore:

(a) 1.5
(b) 6
(c) 15
(d) Cannot be calculated because of insufficient information.

Q10. One of the following is not a potential path for plasmodium merozoites that develop in an infected red blood cell:

(a) They are released to continue the erythrocytic infection cycle.
(b) They eventually develop into sexual stage parasites.
(c) They are eliminated by host immunity.
(d) They advance into the exoerythrocytic cycle.

Q11. Hypozoites may be found in:

(a) Plasmodium malariae.
(b) Babesia microti.
(c) Plasmodium vivax.
(d) Plasmodium falciparum.

Q12. Only one of the attributes below is true of Sarcocystis species oocysts. Identify which one:

(a) Contains sporozoites that are over 18 m long.
(b) Has four sporocysts.
(c) Is surrounded by a double layered cell wass.
(d) Is round in shape.

Q13. In which of the following parasites can one to six dark granules be seen in the oocyst form?

(a) Chilomastix mesnile.
(b) Cryptosporidium parvum.
(c) Cryptosporidium species.
(d) Microsporidia.

Q14. One of the following is not a requirement for T. gondii to cause disease in humans. Which one is it?

(a) Infection with a virulent strain.
(b) Repeated infection.
(c) The host has lowered resistance to combat disease.
(d) The site of parasite invasion is one where tissue damage is likely to result.

Q15. Sigmoidoscopic material include specimens from the:

(a) Colon.
(b) Duodenum.
(c) Skin.
(d) Sterile fluids

Q16. In human blood specimens, the promastigote form may be visible:

(a) Shortly after transmission.
(b) Following reproduction within the human host.
(c) Prior to differentiation to trypomastigotes.
(d) After appearing in tissue and muscle.

Q17. In congenital Toxoplasmosis:

(a) Mental capacity and vision of an infected child remain unimpaired even in severe cases.
(b) Maternal lgG antibodies that cross the placenta may be present in the child for years.
(c) 1gM antibodies may be present in the infant for months.
(d) The mother lacks 1gM antibodies which could be transmitted transplacentally to protect the unborn child.

Q18. The different forms of haemoflagellates can be distinguished morphologically on the basis of the following, except:

(a) Presence or absence of an undulating membrane.
(b) Location of nucleus.
(c) Size.
(d) Presence or absence of an undulating membrane.

Q19. Western immunoblotting is an immunologic technique that involves:

(a) The addition of patient serum to known cultured parasites.
(b) The use of fluorescent dyes to detect patient antibodies attached to a slide.
(c) The removal of interfering antibodies that inhibit accurate antibody detection.
(d) The transfer of protein antigens from a gel for subsequent detection.

Q20. Following Giemsa staining of blood smears, white blood cells appear:

(a) Red.
(b) Purple.
(c) Pink.
(d) Blue.

SECTION B: SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (30 MARKS)
INSTRUCTIONS: ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION

Q21. Outline the three clinical symptom states in which Entamoeba histolytica infections may present and provide three drug treatment options.

Q22. Balantidium coli is the only known ciliate that is pathogenic to man. Provide an overview of the morphologic characteristics of the trophozoite form of this parasite.

Q23. Outline the steps for the calibration of an ocular micrometer.

Q24. State and briefly elucidate on six analytical procedures that can be performed on or using blood samples, in the process of parasite detection.

Q25. Summarize the life cycle of Giardia lamblia and the clinical symptoms for the disease that it causes.
SECTION C: LONG ANSWER QUESTONS. (20 MARKS)
INSTRUCTIONS: ANSWER ONLY ONE QUESTION IN THIS SECTION

Q26. A three year old boy was admitted to the high dependency unit of a distinct hospital with the following symptoms: paroxysms of fever and chills, lethargy, anorexia, nausea and vomiting. In addition, the parasite forms shown below were observed following analysis of the patient’s blood.

(a) State the possible identity of the infecting organism and describe the characteristics of all morphologic forms of this parasite including the one shown.

(b) Explain the blood tests that were carried out to reveal these parasites and how microscopic observations could be utilized to distinguish this species from possible related infecting species.

Q27. Discuss the standard processing techniques that should be performed when conducting microscopic examinations of a stool sample giving examples where appropriate.

Q28. The haemoflagellates include clinically significant parasites found in two genera, Trypanosoma and Leishmania:

(a) Discuss the typical morphologic forms of haemoflagellates.

(b) Describe the members of the Leishmania donovani complex including their epidemiology, the disease they cause and the therapeutic options that are available for treatment.

Mls 2302 : Clinical Protozoology Question Paper

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