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Medb 212:Medical Microbiology Question Paper

Medb 212:Medical Microbiology

Course:Bachelor Of Medicine And Bachelor Of Surgery

Institution: Kenya Methodist University question papers

Exam Year:2013

KENYA METHODIST UNIVERSITY

DEPARTMENT OF MICROBIOLOGY & PARASITOLOGY

END OF FIRST YEAR MEDICAL MICROBIOLOGY I EXAMINATION

BACHELOR OF MEDICINE AND BACHELOR OF SURGERY (MBChB)

JULY 2013

MEDB 212
PAPER II MAIN EXAM
2 HOURS

(MCQs)

Question One

The following is a type of flagella arrangement in bacteria

Peritrichous
Bulgina
Amphitrichous
Lophotrichous
Fimbriations

Question Two

Which of the following micro-organisms are non-motile?

Proteus vulgaris
Salmonella gallinarum
Salmonella pollurum
Shigella sonnei
Klebsiella sonnei

Question Three

Cell wall of bacteria is composed of

Enzymes
Plasmids
Peptidoglycan
Lipoprotein & Lipopolysaccharides
Techoic acids.

Question Four

Bacterial endospore are?

Heat sensitive
Source of stored food
Vegetative bacteria
Heat stable
Pathogenic under proper environmental conditions

Question Five

Which of the following diseases are associated with salmonella infections?

Septicemia
Enteric fever
Gastro-enteritis
Cystitis
Polyarthritis

Question Six

Which of the following statements about Shigella is TRUE?

All shigella species are motile
All shigella species are non-motile
All shigella species are catalase positive
All shigella species are lactose fermenters
All shigella species are indole producers

Question Seven

The word ’Virion’ refers to:-

Infectious virus particles
Non-infectious particles
Incomplete particles
Enveloped virus particles
Defective virus particles

Question Eight

Gram staining is an example of

Simple staining
Differential staining
Negative staining
Capsule staining
None of these

Question Nine

Viruses that attack bacteria are

Bacterial viruses
Bacterial pathogens
Bactriophages
Viral pathogens
Capsids

Question Ten

All of the following organisms are motile EXCEPT?

Escherichia coli
Citrobacter freundii
Salmonella gallinarum
Salmonella pulorum
Salmonella typhimurium

Question Eleven

The following species of salmonella do not have vi antigens EXCEPT

Salmonella typhimurium
Salmonella typhi
Salmonella paratyphi A
Salmonella paratyphi B
Salmonella paratyphi C

Question Twelve

The differences between gram positive and gram negative bacteria is shown to reside in the

Cell wall
Cell membrane
Nucleus
Capsule
Mesosomes

Question Thirteen

Which of the following bacteria are deficient of cell wall?

Mycoplasma
’L’ form
Rickettsia
Protoplast
Spheroplast

Question Fourteen

The conditions required for autoclave are?

121oc and 15 pounds pressure for 20 min
120oc and 20 pounds pressure for 30 min
150oc for 1 hour
130oc for 2 hours
100oc for 20 min

Question Fifteen

Salmonella typhi is the causative agent for

Undulant fever
Remittent fever
Dengue fever
Traveller’s diarrhea
Enteric fever

Question Sixteen

The following infections caused by Escherichia coli, except

Urinary tract infections
Septic infections of wounds
Diarrhea
Dysentery
Meningitis

Question Seventeen

Endotoxins are?

Heat stable
Heat labile
Highly antigenic
Specific in their action
Intracellular toxins

Question Eighteen

Which of the following organism’s posses flagella?

Salmonella typhi
Klebsiella pneumonia
Vibrio cholera
Streptococcus pyogenes
Shigella dysenteriae

Question Nineteen

The ability to damage tissues is

Pathogenicity
Virulence
Invasiveness
Toxicity
Pathogen

Question Twenty

Septicaemia refers to

Bacteria in blood
Toxin in blood
Pus in blood
Multiplication of bacteria and toxins in blood
Pathogens in the circulation

Question Twenty One

One principal function of complement is to

Inactivate perforins
Mediate the release of histamine
Bind antibodies attached to cell surfaces and to lyse these cells.
Phagocytize antigens
Cross link allergens

Question Twenty Two

The major role of the complement system is to work in conjunction with

Antibodies to lyse cells via the C8 and C9 components
The major histocompatibility complex for cell recognition
Antibodies to opsonize cells
The T-cell receptor for production of lymphokines
Antibodies to lyse cells via the perforin molecules.

Question Twenty Three

Immunology is the study of

Treatment of allergies
Treatment of infectious diseases
Treatment of allergies and infectious diseases
None of the above

Question Twenty Four

Hyperthyroidism refers to

Rickets
Sickle cells disease
Beriberi
Grave’s disease

Question Twenty Five

Decrease in the number of neutrophils in the blood is termed as

Asthma
Neutropenia
Diphthelia
Heparin

Question Twenty Six

Which type of cells is infected by human immune-deficiency virus in the initial phase?

T cells
B cells
NK cells
Epithelial cells

Question Twenty Seven

Who is the father of immunology?

Anton Van Leuven hook
Louis Pasteur
Robert Koch
Paul Ehrlich

Question Twenty Eight

What is the common name for a CD8 + T cells

Cytotoxic B cell
Natural killer cell
Plasma T cell
Cytotoxic T cell

Question Twenty Nine

What are the three enzymes of the HIV virus which are key for the virus to multiply?

Endozyme, Virozyme and Cytozyme
Enzyme A, Enzyme B and Enzyme C
None of the names shown
Reverse transcriptase, Intergrase and protease

Question Thirty

What effect does histamine have on capillaries?

The cytoplasmic cells spread out allowing blood to flow through
The cytotoxic cells squeeze together not allowing blood through
The endothelial cells spread out allowing blood cells to squeeze
None of the above

Question Thirty One

Secondary immune response is generated due to

Naive B cells
Memory cells
Naïve T cells
NK cells

Question Thirty Two

Histamine secretion by degranulation from which cell leads to immediate hypersensitivity

B cells
T helper cells
Basophils
Mast cells

Question Thirty Three

In SCID, there is

Low Igm
Low number of neutrophis
Low number of T cells or B cells
Low number of macrophages

Question Thirty Four

Lymphatic systems are primarily associated with

Lymph recycling
Phagocytosis
Acquired immunity
Innate immunity

Question Thirty Five

Goucher disease where glucocerebroside are not degraded is related to

Golgi apparatus
ER
Lysosomes
Peroxisomes

Question Thirty Six

Which of the following is not coded by MHC genes

Glycoproteins
Antigens presenting proteins
Complements of complement pathway
Immunoglobulins

Question Thirty Seven

Which function is not related with Th1 Cells?

Secretion of IL2
Induce phagocytosis
Activated B cells
Promoting antibody binding to soluble antigens

Question Thirty Eight

Vaccines are prepared from killed microbes, they are

Inactivated vaccine
Attenuated vaccine
Autogenous vaccine
None of these

Question Thirty Nine

If the microbes used in the vaccine are obtained from patient, they are?

Anti-viral vaccines
Anti-bacterial vaccines
Autogenous vaccines
None of these

Question Forty

Examples for line vaccine is

Rubella and BCG
Polio and TAB
Diphtheria and Tetanus
Hepatitis A and Rabies

Question Forty One

In bacterial genome, purine are made of

Cytosine and Thymine
Adenine and guanine
Cytosine and guanine
Adenine and thymine

Question Forty Two

Hazardous material contaminated with mycobacteria can be disinfected efficiently with

Chlohexidine
Iodine
Phenol derivatives
QAC

Question Forty Three

The following is not a commensal

Aspergillus Spp
Streptococcus Pneumoniae
Candida albican
Diptitheroids

Question Forty Four

A stool specimen is best transported in

Normal saline
Boric acid
Nutrient broth
Cary blair media

Question Forty Five

The mode of action in disinfectant can be affected by all these EXCEPT

Cost
Presence of organic matter
Type of contaminating microbe
Time and temperature

Question Forty Six

Dry heat sterilization excludes which method

Hot air oven
Flaming
Autoclaving
Incineration

Question Forty Seven

In scientific nomenclature, all of the following statements are false EXCEPT>

Either generic or a species epithet must be used
Abbreviations are not allowed
Names of all taxa are printed in bold and underlined.
Name of categories above the genus may be used alone.

Question Forty Eight

Acquisition of naked DNA from the environment by another bacteria is known as?

Transduction
Transcription
Transformation
Translation

Question Forty Nine

Fluoroquinolines and Metronidazoles

Inhibit nucleic acid synthesis
Alter cell membrane integrity
Inhibit cell wall synthesis
Inhibit protein synthesis

Question Fifty

Match the terms in column A with descriptions in column B. (Insert single answer in the brackets provided.)
COLUMN (A) COLUMN (B)
( ) 1. Disease A. Structural alteration in a tissue or organ
( ) 2. Lesion B. The cause of disease
( ) 3. Symptom C. Objective clinical finding
( ) 4. Pathogenesis D. The study of the cause of a disease
( ) 5. Prognosis E. Subjective complaint of the patient.
( ) 6. Etiology F. Disturbance of body structure and or function
G. A prediction of the likely outcome of a disease
H. The mechanism by which a disease is caused.

Question Fifty One

The following is not a method of antimicrobial sensitivity testing

Kirby – Bower method
Agar – Breakpoint method
Most probable number
Minimum inhibitory concentration

Question Fifty Two

Super antigens are produced by

Clostridium tetani
Ecoli
Yesinia
Staphylococcus aurous

Question Fifty Three

The following test differentiates streptococci and staptylococci spp.

IMVIC
Catalase
Gram stain
Growth on blood agar

Question Fifty Four

A fungus is similar to bacteria in which aspect?

Fungi are prokaryotic
Bacterial have ergosterol in the cell membrane
Fungi cell wall has teichoic acid
Some fungi and some bacteria may have a capsule

Question Fifty Five

In the Novobiocin test

Staphylococcus aureus is resistant
Staphylococcus epidermidis is resistant
Staphylococcus saprophuticus is resistant
Staphylococcus saprophyticus is susceptible

Question Fifty Six

This bacteria genera is not associated with

Escherichia
Salmonella
Shigella
Yesinia

Question Fifty Seven

The following genera has gram negative cocci

Neisseria spp
Haemophillus spp
Bacillus spp
Streptococcus spp

Question Fifty Eight

In developing countries the major cause of bacillary dysentery is

Shigella flexneri
Shigella somnei
Shigella dysenteriae
Shigella boydii

Question Fifty Nine

Clinically the following is not associated with Shigellosis

Tenesmus
Chronic infection
Blood and mucoid stool
Fractional stool

Question Sixty

Yersinia Pestis is similar to YeRsinia encerocolitica in this ways except

Bipolar staining pathogens
Transmitted by arthropods
Gram negative rods
Zoonati

Question Sixty One

The pthirus spp parasitic to humans can effectively be controlled in one of the following methods.

Deworming
Exposure to boiling water
Deprivation of the environment for attachment
Application of petroleum jelly

Question Sixty Two

One of the following is the reproduction method of Glossina, which one

Laying eggs under free foliage
Giving birth to a 1st instar fly
Larviposting in soft soil
By pathenogenic mode

Question Sixty Three

One of the drugs listed below can not be used for treating Schistosomiasis:

Oxamnoquine
Bayluscide
Metrifonate
Praziquantel

Question Sixty Four

Which one of the following organisms can be used as a successful control agent of mosquito larvae?

Gambusia species
Procamburas species
Potoman crabs
The nile perch

Question Sixty Five

Which one of the following clinical signs is not indicative of infection with trypanosomiasis?

Skin itchiness
Speech disorder
Oriental sore
Swollen lymph nodes

Question Six Six

The stool Kato-Katz examination method is a good quantitative methods for all the parasite listed below except

Ascaris lubricoides
Trichuris trichiura
Giardia lamblia
Schistosoma mansoni

Question Sixty Seven

Which one of the following is true of larvae of aedes mosquitoes?

Lie parallel to the water surface when at rest
Are not a feeding stage of development
Have a long breathing tube
Develop most appropriately in pit latrines

Question Sixty Eight

The following organs, except one, may enlarge due to infection with Lymphatic filariasis.

Scrotum
Vulva
Limbs
Lungs

Question Sixty Nine

Which of the following is the only pork tapeworm?

Taenia saginata
Hymenolepis diminuta
Taenia solium
Echinococcus granulosus

Question Seventy

In the life cycte of the hydatid disease, one of the following is regarded as a dead-end intermediate host.

Sheep
Cow
Goat
Human being

Question Seventy One

The following drugs can be used for treating ascaris except one

Albendazole
Ivermectin
Mebendazole
Oxamnoquine

Question Seventy Two

Heavy infection with hookworms may cause the following conditions except one

Iron deficiency anaemia
Loss of blood
Low birth weight
Hepatomegaly

Question Seventy Three

One method of separating ancylostoma duodonale from Necator americanus is?

Ancylostoma duodenale has a pair of cutting plates on the mouthparts.
It is haemaphroditic.
It has two pairs of teeth on its mouth parts.
It has two oral suckers

Question Seventy Four

The following statements are correct about Trichinella Spiralis except one

Female is viviparous
Male is much smaller than female
Muscle biopsy provides the best diagnosis
Eggs hatch in the duodenum.

Question Seventy Five

Which one of the following symptoms is not characteristic of Amoebiasis infection?

Amoebic dysentery
Liver abscess
Dysentery
Megacolon

Question Seventy Six

The following are asexual reproduction processes of protozoa except one?

Schizogony
Binary fission
Budding
Syngamy

Question Seventy Seven

The following parasites are said to be non-pathogenic except one. Which?

Dientamoeba fragilis
Entamoeba coli
Iodumoeba butschlli
Entamoeba dispar

Question Seventy Eight

The following are referred to as determinants of malaria transmission except which one?

Human host
Environment
The parasite
Female culex mosquito

Question Seventy Nine

One of the following is not critical in malaria control

Vector control
Strict personal hygiene
Preventive measures
Patient treatment

Question Eighty

The following populations are considered to be at higher risk of contracting malaria except one

Patients with HIV/AIDs
Non-immune travelers
Pregnant women
All adults in stable (endemic) malaria areas.

Medb 212:Medical Microbiology Question Paper

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