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Human Anatomy Question Paper
Human Anatomy
Course:Bachelor Of Medicine And Bachelor Of Surgery
Institution: Kenya Methodist University question papers
Exam Year:2012
KENYA METHODIST UNIVERSITY
DEPARTMENT OF HUMAN ANATOMY
END OF THIRD TRIMESTER EXAMINATION
BACHELOR OF MEDICINE AND BACHELOR OF SURGERY (MBChB)
AUGUST 2012
Instructions
• This examination should be done in 2 hours 30 minutes
• For Multiple Choice Questions, circle the MOST correct response. Only ONE response is correct
• For short answer questions, write the answers in the spaces provided
• Write your registration number on each page of the paper
SECTION A (SINGLE BEST ANSWER MCQs)
1. All the following are terms of position used in anatomy except?
A. Anterior
B. Medial
C. Flexion
D. Caudal
2. Which of the following muscles inserts on the lesser trochanter?
A. Gluteus maximus
B. Tensor fasciae lata
C. Iliopsoas
D. Gracilis
3. Paul sustained a posterior dislocation of the hip joint following a road traffic accident. Which of the following structures is MOST likely to have been damaged
A. Femoral nerve
B. Sciatic nerve
C. Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve
D. Sciatic artery
Jane is a 76 year old female who presents with a left groin swelling. She is noted to have distended veins on the abdomen just below the umbilicus. She is diagnosed to have a hernia. Use this information to answer questions 4 and 5.
4. Which of the following IS NOT a boundary of the ring through which this herniation took place?
A. Femoral vein
B. Inguinal ligament
C. Lacunar ligament
D. Pectineus muscle
5. Which of these is the MOST likely abdominal vein that is distended?
A. Superficial epigastric
B. Superficial circumflex iliac
C. Deep external pudendal
D. Superficial external pudendal
6. The ligament that limits hyperextension of the hip joint is?
A. Pubofemoral ligament
B. Iliofemoral ligament
C. Ischiofemoral ligament
D. Sacrotuberous ligament
7. One of the following traverses both the greater and lesser sciatic foramina
A. Internal pudendal nerve
B. Internal pudendal artery
C. Obturator internus
D. Sciatic nerve
8. Which of the nerves below is WRONGLY matched to its root value
A. Femoral-anterior L2,3,4
B. Sciatic –L4,5, S1,2,3
C. Posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh-S1,2,3
D. Obturator nerve-L2,3,4
9. Which of the following structures does NOT arise from the anterior iliac spines?
a. Sartorius
b. Inguinal ligament
c. Iliofemoral ligament
d. Vastus lateralis
10. The following factors are essential for lateral balance control EXCEPT
A. Correct neck-shaft angle of femur
B. Presence of strong ligaments
C. Functional abductors of the hip
D. Femoral head must be in the acetabulum
11. Doreen, a housegirl, presented to an outpatient centre with painful swelling on the anterior knee. The attending diagnosed bursitis. State the likely bursa involved
A. Prepatellar bursa
B. Superficial infrapatellar bursa
C. Suprapatellar bursa
D. Deep infrapatellar bursa
12. Which of the following joints is wrongly matched with its classification?
A. Hip joint-mortise and tennon
B. Patella-femoral joint-sellar joint
C. Tibiofemoral joint-condylar joint
D. Proximal radioulnar joint-planar joint
13. All the following are referred to as the unhappy triad except?
A. Tibial collateral ligament
B. Posterior cruciate ligament
C. Anterior cruciate ligament
D. Medial meniscus
14. Single out the correct aspect of knee menisci
A. Are made of elastic cartilage
B. The lateral meniscus is larger and more fixed
C. Have poor blood supply centrally
D. The medial meniscus is triangular shaped
15. Three of the following muscles share an insertion in the aponeurosis referred to as the pes anserine, EXCEPT
A. Semitendinosus
B. Semimembranosus
C. Sartorius
D. Gracilis
16. Which of the following BEST describes unlocking of the knee joint?
A. It is a passive movement that occurs during hyperextension
B. Involves medial rotation of the femur on a fixed tibia
C. Occurs during rotation of the knee joint
D. Involves lateral rotation of femur on a fixed tibia
17. Which of the following is INCORRECT about the talus bone
A. The medial articulating surface is comma-shaped
B. It has no muscle attachments
C. The neck bears an inferior groove called sinus tarsi
D. It has a good blood supply
18. Name the source of nutrient foramen to the fibula
A. Posterior tibial artery
B. Peroneal artery
C. Anterior tibial artery
D. Femoral artery
19. Yvonne has the following complaints to her nurse: numbness on the lower lateral aspect of the leg, weak eversion of the foot and dorsiflexion. Which single of the following nerves is MOST LIKELY to be involved?
A. Sural
B. Superficial peroneal
C. Common peroneal
D. Tibial
20. Which muscle is matched CORRECTLY with the nerve that supplies it?
A. Rectus femoris – Saphenous nerve
B. Adductor longus – Sciatic nerve
C. Peroneus longus – Deep peroneal nerve
D. Pectineus – Obturator nerve
21. Which of the following nerves is located in the femoral sheath?
A. Femoral nerve
B. Nerve to iliacus
C. Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve
D. Anterior division of Obturator nerve
22. Which one is NOT true regarding venous return of the lower limb?
A. The great saphenous vein is used as a site of cut down at the ankle
B. Incompetent perforating veins may lead to varicose veins
C. The soleus is also referred to as the peripheral heart
D. Small saphenous drains into the femoral vein
23. During a student demonstration, Wycliffe was hit on the lateral aspect of the knee by a police club, and sustained suddent foot drop and loss of sensation over lateral foot and cleft of big toe. Which nerve is likely to have been targeted by the police?
A. Common peroneal nerve
B. Common tibial nerve
C. Femoral nerve
D. Sural nerve
24. Which of the following statements about the arches of the foot is INCORRECT
A. Talus forms the apex of medial longitudinal arch
B. All the three cuneiform bones assist in formation of medial longitudinal arch
C. The transverse arch is higher than the medial longitudinal arch
D. The arches are fully developed by age 13 years
25. Which of the following best defines the mid-inguinal point?
A. Midway between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic symphysis
B. Midway between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle
C. Both and A and B
D. Runs parallel to the mid-clavicular line
26. Choose the correct statement about lattisimus dorsi muscle
A. Innervation-long thoracic nerve
B. Action-principal flexor of shoulder joint
C. Origin-upper seven ribs
D. Insertion-bicipital groove of the humerus
27. All the following are reasons why the clavicle is easily fractured except?
A. It is held in place by very strong ligaments
B. Its S shape
C. It is an irregular short bone
D. It has a medial 2/3 and lateral 1/3 with distinct embryological origins
28. Choose the WRONG statement about the brachial plexus
A. Originates from anterior roots of nerves C5, 6,7,8, T1
B. In case of a prefixed plexus, the root are C4-C8
C. It is smaller than the lumbosacral plexus
D. A postfixed plexus originates from C6, 7, 8, T1,2
29. After a motorcycle accident, George presented to a doctor with unopposed internal rotation of shoulder joint, extension of elbow joint, and pronation of forearm. The doctor diagnosed Erb’s palsy. Which is the correct statement about Erb’s palsy?
A. Injury was in the middle trunk
B. The superior trunk was injured
C. The radial nerve had been lacerated
D. The middle trunk was involved
30. Which of the following nerves is INCORRECTLY matched with its cord of origin?
A. Ulnar-medial cord
B. Radial-lateral cord
C. Axillary-posterior cord
D. Lateral pectoral nerve-lateral cord
31. The following are supraclavicular branches of the brachial plexus except?
A. Long thoracic nerve
B. Dorsal scapular nerve
C. Phrenic nerve
D. Ulnar nerve
32. Which of the following statements about the female breast is FALSE
A. The nipple lies at the level of 4th intercostals space
B. Extends into the medial lower quadrant as the axillary tail of Spence
C. 75% of lymphatics drain to the axillary nodes
D. Lymphatics connect both breasts, making spread of cancer from one breast to the other possible
33. Which of the following is incorrect about the axillary artery
A. Extends from teres major and goes distally to first rib
B. Divided into three parts by pectoralis minor
C. Has three branches in the third part
D. Continues as the brachial artery
34. All the following actions of shoulder and elbow joints are matched with prime movers EXCEPT?
A. Shoulder extension-lattisimus dorsi
B. Shoulder medial rotation-subscapularis
C. Shoulder abduction-teres minor
D. Elbow flexion-brachialis
35. Mwiti fell from a tree and sustained a fracture of the shaft of the humerus. He presented to the outpatient department with a wrist drop. On examination, elbow and shoulder extension was intact, and the triceps brachii muscle was unaffected. How would you explain this anatomically?
A. The radial nerve does not innervate the triceps muscles, hence they were not affected.
B. The radial branches to the triceps are given off in the axilla, hence the humeral shaft fracture did not affect them
C. The radial nerve was not the one involved in this case
D. The triceps brachii muscles receive innervations from dual nerves; radial and musculocutaneous
36. The humerus is unique in that nerves are found in close association with the bone, making them vulnerable in case of fractures. Which of the following nerves is INCORRECTLY matched with its relation to the humerus?
A. Axillary nerve-surgical neck
B. Radial nerve-radial groove
C. Axillary nerve-anatomical neck
D. Ulnar nerve-medial condyle
37. Which of these matches is incorrect?
A. Acromioclavicular joint-Sliding type of joint
B. Proximal radio-ulnar-pivot joint
C. Scapulothoracic-osteofacial/physiologic joint
D. Glenohumeral joint-mortise and tennon
38. One of the following statements about supination and pronation of forearm is true. Which one?
A. Pronation is involved in locking of screws
B. Supinator is the prime muscle of supination
C. Pronation is stronger than supination
D. In both movements, the head of radius rotates on the radial notch of ulnar
39. Which of the following is not true about the carrying angle of the elbow joint
A. It’s main function is keeping the upper limb away from the pelvis
B. It is larger in males than females
C. The angle is increased in cubital valgus
D. It is formed by the intersection of the long axis of humerus and long axis of forearm bones
40. When a nerve passes through a muscle, there is risk of entrapment. Which nerve is INCORRECTLY matched with the muscle it traverses?
A. Median nerve - pronator teres
B. Ulnar nerve – flexor carpi ulnaris
C. Radial nerve – supinator
D. Musculocutaneous – biceps brachii
41. About the scapula, choose the INCORRECT statement
A. Medial rotation of the scapula in vital in shoulder abduction
B. Suprascapular nerve is a content of the suprascapular foramen
C. Levator scapula muscle is attached to the superior angle
D. Paralysis of serratus anterior will cause winging
42. All the following muscles are attached on the coracoid process except
A. Pectoralis minor
B. Short head of biceps brachii
C. Pectoralis major
D. Coracobrachialis
43. Which of the following statements about the anatomical snuff box is false
A. Abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis are lateral boundaries
B. The median nerve is a content
C. The radial nerve can be palpated therein
D. Tenderness in the anatomical snuff box may indicate fracture neck of scaphoid
44. NOT a bone of the carpus
A. Navicular
B. Scaphoid
C. Hamate
D. Lunate
45. NOT a thenar muscle
A. Opponens pollicis
B. Abductor pollicis brevis
C. Opponens thenaris
D. Flexor pollicis brevis
46. Which one of the the following is a structural feature of a non-lactating mammary gland?
A. Well-developed alveolar
B. Highly vascularized
C. Abundant adipose
D. Numerous ducts
47. Choose the CORRECT statement regarding the lactating mammary gland
A. Alveolar cells are devoid of smooth endoplasmic reticulum
B. The lactiferous sinuses are lined by stratified squamous epithelium
C. Milk synthesis is stimulated by oxytocin
D. It contains many defence cells
48. The mode of secretion in the axillary sweat glands is?
A. Merocrine
B. Holocrine
C. Apocrine
D. Eccrine
49. The mode of secretion in sebaceous glands is?
A. Merocrine
B. Paracrine
C. Apocrine
D. Holocrine
50. Choose the epithelial type that is CORRECTLY matched with occurrence
A. Transitional – distal urethra
B. Pseudostratified columnar – vocal cords
C. Simple cuboidal – glandular epithelium
D. Simple columnar – vaginal canal
51. The following are features of steroid synthesizing cells EXCEPT?
A. Abundant rough endoplasmic reticulum
B. Mitochondria spherical
C. Abundant lipid droplets
D. Abundant smooth endoplasmic reticulum
52. All the following are functions of smooth endoplasmic reticulum EXCEPT
A. Steroid synthesis
B. Sequestration and release of the calcium ions – sarcoplasmic reticulum
C. Synthesis of phospholipids
D. Activation of apoptosis
53. One of the following layers of the epidermis is not found in thin skin. Name it
A. Stratum corneum
B. Stratum basale
C. Stratum spinosum
D. Stratum lucidum
54. The following cells are found in the stratum basale of the epidermis EXCEPT
A. Keratinocytes
B. Fibroblasts
C. Melanocytes
D. Merkel’s cells
55. True about melanin synthesis
A. Dark-skinned people have more melanocytes than light-skinned people
B. Melanin synthesis is under adrenal control
C. Melanocytes in dark-skinned people are bigger and resistant to degradation
D. Melanosomes are found in abundance in stratum corneum
56. One of the statements below about sweat glands is false.
A. Most of the sweat glands in the body are eccrine type
B. Are simple coiled glands
C. Ducts lined by simple squamous epithelium
D. Are found in close association with myoepithelial cells
57. The following features are seen in immotile cilia syndrome EXCEPT?
A. High vulnerability to chronic respiratory infections
B. Low fertility index
C. Ectopic pregnancies
D. High sperm motility
58. The following are lateral features of epithelia EXCEPT
A. Connexons
B. Zonula occludens
C. Adhering junctions
D. Hemidesmosomes
59. The following is an INCORRECT match of the resident cell of the mononuclear phagocytic system and its location
A. Kuppfer – liver
B. Monocytes – blood
C. Dust cells – skin
D. Dendritic – lymph nodes
60. Function INCORRECTLY matched with the distinctive cellular feature;
A. Active ion transport – Junctional complexes
B. Protein synthesis – Prominent nucleolus
C. Phagocytosis – Peroxisomes
D. Propulsion – Microfilaments
61. In which organelle are the digestive enzymes released into the alimentary canal formed
A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
B. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C. Lysosome
D. Peroxisomes
62. One of the following is a pure endocrine gland
A. Heart
B. Kidneys
C. Lungs
D. Thyroid gland
63. All the following are characteristics of endocrine glands EXCEPT?
A. They are ductless
B. Well vascularised
C. Are found in clusters or as discrete cells
D. Are all under hypothalamic control
64. Stereocilia is located in all the following regions EXCEPT?
A. Epididymis
B. Ductus deferens
C. Vestibular receptor cells
D. Fallopian tube
65. Choose one which is NOT part of interphase
A. G1 – phase
B. M – phase
C. G2 – phase
D. S – phase
66. NOT a part of the Adenohypophysis
A. Pars mammilaris
B. Pars tuberalis
C. Pars intermedia
D. Pars distalis
67. NOT true about histophysiology of the hypothalamus
A. Acts as a master gland, producing releasing and inhibiting hormones to control pituitary
B. Produces prolactin and somatomammostatin
C. Acts as an endocrine gland, producing ADH and oxytocin
D. Exerts neural control over adrenal medulla
68. Which of the following endocrine disorders is CORRECTLY MATCHED with the hormone that’s defective?
A. Precocious puberty-TSH
B. Hypogonadism-oxytocin
C. Dwarfism-prolactin
D. Diabetes insipidus-ADH
69. NOT true about calcitonin
A. Produced by ultimobrachial or C-cells of thyroid
B. Increases calcium concentration in blood
C. Slows calcium-releasing activity of osteoclasts
D. Increases calcium loss through urine
70. Which of the following concerning the parathyroid glands is TRUE?
A. Oxyphil cells produce parathyroid hormone
B. Are usually six in number
C. Involved in regulation of calcium homeostasis
D. Are under active control by the pituitary gland
71. NOT a part of adrenal cortex
A. Zona basale
B. Zona reticularis
C. Zona glomerulosa
D. Zona fasciculata
72. Which of the following parts of the adrenal gland are incorrectly matched with the hormone they produce?
A. Zona glomerulosa-aldosterone
B. Adrenal medulla-adrenaline
C. Zona reticularis-noradrenaline
D. Zona fasciculata-cortisol
73. The endocrine part of the testes is
A. Sertoli cells
B. Seminiferous tubules
C. Interstitial cells of Leydig
D. Epididymis
74. True about the pancreas
A. Is a mixed endocrine and exocrine gland
B. Islet cells of Langerhans are the main exocrine portion
C. The endocrine portion of the pancreas is larger than the exocrine portion
D. Produces some androgens
75. One of the following cells of the pancreatic Islets is INCORRECTLY matched with the hormone it produces
A. Alpha cells-Glucagon
B. Beta cells-aromatase
C. F cells-pancreatic polypeptide
D. Delta cells-Somatostatin
76. Cells that are intrinsic in connective tissue include the following except
A. Fibroblasts
B. Macrophages
C. Mast cells
D. Lymphocytes
77. Conjoined twins result from partial separation of embryonic cells at
A. Trilaminar disc stage
B. Implantation stage
C. Morula stage
D. Zygote stage
78. All the following are likely causes of oligohydramnios EXCEPT?
A. Brain anomalies
B. Obstructive uropathy
C. Placental insufficiency
D. Renal agenesis
79. Choose the INCORRECT statement regarding the yolk sac
A. Is incorporated during folding to form the primitive gut
B. Merkel’s Diverticulum is an associated anomaly
C. Is involved in transfer of nutrients to embryo in the 3rd and 4th week
D. Is a site of oogenesis
80. The following events occur during the 3rd week of development EXCEPT?
A. Implantation
B. Neurulation
C. Gastrulation
D. Formation of the notochord
81. All about spermatogenesis are correct EXCEPT?
A. Seminiferous tubules have active as well as resting portions
B. Sertoli cells phagocytose excess cytoplasm of sperms
C. Sperms are maximally motile in the epididymis
D. Spermatozoa are passively transported through efferent tubules
82. During oogenesis, the 2nd meiotic division is arrested at?
A. Fertilization
B. Before birth
C. Ovulation
D. Early neonatal life
83. NOT an event during spermiogenesis
A. Formation of acrosome
B. Capacitation
C. Shedding of cytoplasm
D. Nuclear condensation
84. True about the menstrual cycle
A. Is a 21 day cycle in most cases
B. Secretory phase is always constant even in irregular cycles
C. Proliferative phase is under progesterone control
D. Ovulatory phase occurs due to FSH surge
85. Joan was admitted to hospital with severe lower abdominal pains and scanty per vaginal bleeding. Despite denial of sexual encounter, she tested positive for pregnancy. An Ultrasound revealed an extrauterine pregnancy. Which one of the following is INCORRECT in her case
A. The interstitial portion of the fallopian tube was the MOST likely site of pregnancy
B. The ampulla of the fallopian tube is the most likely pregnancy site
C. There is a high possibility of rupture in her case
D. Arias stella reaction could explain the per vaginal bleeding
86. Regarding the notochord, the following statements are true EXCEPT?
A. Provides signals that are necessary for development of the nervous system
B. Share in the formation of inter-vertebral disc
C. Provides the embryonic axis
D. Shrinkage of the primitive streak is associated with shrinkage of the notochord
87. After normal delivery of the baby, there may be difficulties in delivering the placenta associated with uncontrolled uterine bleeding. This is most likely to be due to?
A. Placenta previa
B. Placenta percreta
C. Battledore placenta
D. Placenta velamentosa
88. All the following constitute the endocrine ovary EXCEPT?
A. Corpus luteum
B. Theca interna
C. Granulosa cells
D. Germinal epithelium
89. All the following are results of fertilization EXCEPT?
A. Restoration of diploid
B. Completion of the spermatozoal 2nd meiotic division
C. Genetic variation
D. Initiation of the zygote mitotic divisions
90. The placenta is a major endocrine organ in pregnancy. Which one of the following hormones is produced by the placenta?
A. ACTH
B. Human Chorionic thyroxine
C. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
D. Testosterone
91 .Not a fetal membrane
A. Allantois
B. Placenta
C. Chorion
D. Amnion
Use the choices below to answer questions 92-96. Write your one response before each question.
A. Suprascapular nerve
B. Nerve to subclavius
C. Thoracodorsal nerve
D. Cephalic vein
E. Basilic vein
F. Musculocutaneous nerve
G. Long thoracic nerve
92. Originates from the superior trunk of the brachial plexus
93. Damage to this nerve during breast surgery causes winging of the scapula
94. Is the biggest tributary of the axillary vein
95. Innervates the prime extensor of shoulder joint
96. From lateral cord of the brachial plexus
Use the information below to answer questions 97-100. Choose only one answer in each case. An answer can appear more than once
A. Merkel cells
B. Meissner’s corpuscles
C. Paccinian corpuscles
D. Arector pili muscle
E. Pilosebaceous unit
F. Reticular dermis
97. Found in the dermo-hypodermal junction
98. Is of neural crest origin
99. Is a fine touch receptor
100. Found in dermal papillae
SECTION B
Question 1
a) Name two structures that attach at the region labeled X (2marks)
b) State the innervation of gluteus maximus muscle (1marks)
c) State two muscles that insert into the iliotibial tract (2mks)
Question 2
a) Write short notes on the femoral canal under the following headings
i) Boundaries (4mks)
ii) Clinical significance (1mk)
Question 3
a) Name the three muscles that form the triceps surae (3mks)
b) State the extents of the popliteal artery (2mks)
Question 4
a) State the vessels that form the scapula anastomosis (3mks)
b) Explain the anatomical basis of pulsating scapula and rib notching in relation to scapular anastomosis (2mks)
Question 5
About the muscles supraspinatus, state the following:
a) The origin and insertion (2mks)
b) Innervation (1mk)
c) Its role in abduction of the shoulder (2mks)
Question 6
a) Classify the proximal radio-ulnar joint (1mk)
b) Name two movements that occur at the joint (2mks)
c) Name the prime movers in elbow flexion, and shoulder extension (2mks)
Question 7
Describe the cubital fossa under the following
a) Boundaries (3mks)
b) Any two contents (1mk)
c) Applied anatomy (1mk)
Question 8
a) State the root values of the following nerves (3mks)
i. Radial nerve____________________
ii. Thoracodorsal nerve_________________
iii. Ulnar nerve________________________
b) Name two nerves that originate from roots of the brachial plexus (2mks)
Question 9
a) Name two bones that are known to suffer avascular necrosis in case of disruption in blood supply (2mks)
b) Kwaako sustained a fracture shaft of humerus after a fall, and presented to the hospital with a wrist drop. The attending doctor suspected nerve injury.
i. Name the nerve likely to have been involved (1mk)
ii. Apart from the answer above, name two other nerves that travel close to the humerus bone, and name the part of the humerus they travel along (2mks)
Question 10
a) State two contents of the carpal tunnel (2mks)
b) Define carpal tunnel syndrome and give its anatomical basis (3mks)
Question 11
a) State three functions of rough endoplasmic reticulum (3mks)
b) Define a totipotent and pluripotent stem cell (2mks)
Question 12
a) State three characteristics of cells involved in active ion transport (3mks)
b) Name two cells in the body which are chiefly steroid synthesizing (2mks)
Question 13
a) State the organelle associated with the following clinical syndrome;
i. Tay Sac’s disease (1mk)___________________________
ii. Zellweger Syndrome (1mk)________________________
iii. Gaucher’s disease (1mk)__________________________
b) List two functions of the cell nucleus (2marks)
Question 14
a) Name the cytoskeleton component that form part of the following cellular structure;
i. Microvilli (1mark)______________________
ii. Flagella (1mark)__________________________
iii. Cilia (1mk)______________________________
b) Give two clinical features seen in patients with immotile cilia syndrome (2marks)
Question 15
Name the endocrine cells in the following organs (5mks)
i. Testes___________________________
ii. Ovaries___________________________
iii. Parathyroid gland____________________
iv. Pancreas____________________________
v. Thyroid gland________________________
Question 16
a) State two importance of meiotic cell division (2marks)
b) About oogenesis;
i. State the stage in utero when meiosis is arrested (1marks)_______________
ii. State the number of viable daughter cells (1mark)______________________
iii. Name the main hormone involved in ovulation (1mk)___________________
Question 17
a) List two types of neurulation and indicate what they form (2marks)
b) Name two derivatives of the neural crest cells in the abdomen (2marks)
c) Describe the role of the notochord in neurulation (1mk)
Question 18
a) State three functions of the amniotic fluid (3mks)
b) State two causes of polyhydramnios (2mks)
Question 19
Describe the allantois under the following
a) Formation (2mks)
b) Functions (1mk)
c) Normal fate (1mk)
d) Abnormal fate (1mk)
Question 20
a) Name three hormones produced by the placenta (3mks)
b) State four components of the placental barrier in early gestation (2mk)
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